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Thrombocytopenia: ITP, TTP, HIT, DIC — Distinguishing Features is a high-yield topic for Step 1, Step 2 CK, and Step 3. It appears in basic science, clinical, and ethics/management contexts, with a high frequency in Step 2 CK and Step 3. Understanding these conditions is crucial for managing patients with bleeding disorders.
Exam board insight: TTP is a common cause of thrombocytopenia in patients with neurological symptoms.
The mistake: Failing to diagnose HIT in patients with thrombocytopenia and heparin use.
Exam board insight: HIT is a common cause of thrombocytopenia in patients with heparin use.
The mistake: Failing to manage DIC with corticosteroids and anticoagulants.
Question 1: A 30-year-old woman with ITP presents with petechiae and purpura. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial treatment? A) Corticosteroids B) IVIG C) Platelet transfusions D) Splenectomy
Answer: A) Corticosteroids
Explanation: Corticosteroids are the first-line treatment for ITP, with IVIG and platelet transfusions reserved for severe cases.
Question 2: A 40-year-old man with TTP presents with thrombocytopenia, microangiopathic hemolytic anemia, and neurological symptoms. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial treatment? A) Plasma exchange B) Corticosteroids C) Anti-platelet agents D) Heparin
Answer: A) Plasma exchange
Explanation: Plasma exchange is the most appropriate initial treatment for TTP, with corticosteroids and anti-platelet agents used in conjunction.
Question 3: A 50-year-old woman with HIT presents with thrombocytopenia and heparin-induced antibodies. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial treatment? A) Heparin discontinuation B) Corticosteroids C) Anti-platelet agents D) Warfarin
Answer: A) Heparin discontinuation
Explanation: Heparin discontinuation is the most appropriate initial treatment for HIT, with corticosteroids and anti-platelet agents used in conjunction.
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