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Ambulatory OB: Prenatal screening interpretation, glucose screening, and vaccine timing are high-yield topics for Step 1 and Step 2 CK, with occasional appearances in Step 3. These topics are crucial for diagnosing and managing pregnant patients, particularly those with high-risk conditions.
Missing a diagnosis of GDM or preeclampsia can lead to severe maternal and fetal complications.
Question 1: A 30-year-old woman at 28 weeks of gestation presents with polyuria, polydipsia, and blurred vision. What is the next step in management? Options: A) Order a 100-g glucose tolerance test (GTT) B) Order an ultrasound to rule out fetal growth restriction C) Order a non-invasive prenatal test (NIPT) for aneuploidy D) Start insulin therapy Answer: A) Order a 100-g glucose tolerance test (GTT) Explanation: The patient's symptoms are consistent with gestational diabetes mellitus (GDM). The next step in management is to order a 100-g glucose tolerance test (GTT) to confirm the diagnosis.
Question 2: A 25-year-old woman at 16 weeks of gestation presents with a nuchal translucency of 3.5 mm. What is the next step in management? Options: A) Order a first-trimester screening test (nuchal translucency, free beta hCG, and PAPP-A) B) Order a non-invasive prenatal test (NIPT) for aneuploidy C) Order an ultrasound to rule out fetal growth restriction D) Schedule an amniocentesis Answer: A) Order a first-trimester screening test (nuchal translucency, free beta hCG, and PAPP-A) Explanation: The patient's nuchal translucency is elevated, which is a risk factor for aneuploidy. The next step in management is to order a first-trimester screening test to assess the risk of aneuploidy.
Question 3: A 35-year-old woman at 32 weeks of gestation presents with hypertension and proteinuria. What is the next step in management? Options: A) Order a non-invasive prenatal test (NIPT) for aneuploidy B) Order an ultrasound to rule out fetal growth restriction C) Order a 100-g glucose tolerance test (GTT) to rule out gestational diabetes mellitus (GDM) D) Start antihypertensive therapy Answer: D) Start antihypertensive therapy Explanation: The patient's symptoms are consistent with preeclampsia. The next step in management is to start antihypertensive therapy to control the blood pressure.
Question 4: A 28-year-old woman at 24 weeks of gestation presents with a positive 1-hour glucose challenge test (GCT). What is the next step in management? Options: A) Order a 100-g glucose tolerance test (GTT) to confirm the diagnosis B) Order an ultrasound to rule out fetal growth restriction C) Order a non-invasive prenatal test (NIPT) for aneuploidy D) Schedule an amniocentesis Answer: A) Order a 100-g glucose tolerance test (GTT) to confirm the diagnosis Explanation: The patient's positive 1-hour glucose challenge test (GCT) indicates an elevated risk of gestational diabetes mellitus (GDM). The next step in management is to order a 100-g glucose tolerance test (GTT) to confirm the diagnosis.
Question 5: A 30-year-old woman at 28 weeks of gestation presents with symptoms of preeclampsia. What is the next step in management? Options: A) Order a non-invasive prenatal test (NIPT) for aneuploidy B) Order an ultrasound to rule out fetal growth restriction C) Order a 100-g glucose tolerance test (GTT) to rule out gestational diabetes mellitus (GDM) D) Start antihypertensive therapy Answer: D) Start antihypertensive therapy Explanation: The patient's symptoms are consistent with preeclampsia. The next step in management is to start antihypertensive therapy to control the blood pressure.
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