By Fatskills Exam Guides Team — the exam nerds behind 28,500+ quizzes and 2.1M practice questions across 500+ global exams.
Mitral Regurgitation (MR) is a high-yield topic for Step 1 and Step 2 CK, with a lower but still relevant frequency for Step 3. It is essential to understand the pathophysiology, clinical presentation, diagnostic approach, and management of both acute and chronic MR, particularly in the context of myocardial infarction (MI) and papillary muscle rupture.
Exam board insight: The examiners will penalize delayed treatment of acute MR, with a focus on urgent surgical repair or intervention.
The mistake: Failing to diagnose chronic MR and initiate medical therapy.
Question 1: A 45-year-old man presents with sudden onset of severe heart failure, pulmonary edema, and hypotension. Echocardiogram shows severe MR with left ventricular dilation and dysfunction. What is the next best step in management?
A) Medical therapy with ACE inhibitors and beta-blockers B) Urgent surgical repair or intervention C) Inotropes and vasopressors as needed D) Diuretics and oxygen therapy
Answer: B) Urgent surgical repair or intervention
Explanation: The patient has acute MR with severe heart failure, pulmonary edema, and hypotension, requiring urgent surgical repair or intervention.
Question 2: A 60-year-old woman presents with gradual onset of dyspnea, fatigue, and palpitations. Echocardiogram shows moderate to severe MR with left ventricular dilation and hypertrophy. What is the next best step in management?
A) Medical therapy with ACE inhibitors and beta-blockers B) Surgical repair or replacement of the mitral valve C) Inotropes and vasopressors as needed D) Diuretics and oxygen therapy
Answer: A) Medical therapy with ACE inhibitors and beta-blockers
Explanation: The patient has chronic MR with moderate to severe MR, requiring medical therapy with ACE inhibitors and beta-blockers.
Question 3: A 55-year-old man presents with sudden onset of severe heart failure, pulmonary edema, and hypotension. Echocardiogram shows severe MR with left ventricular dilation and dysfunction. What is the most likely cause of the MR?
A) Papillary muscle rupture B) Mitral valve leaflet prolapse C) Chordal rupture D) Cardiac tamponade
Answer: A) Papillary muscle rupture
Explanation: The patient has acute MR with severe heart failure, pulmonary edema, and hypotension, making papillary muscle rupture the most likely cause.
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