By Fatskills Exam Guides Team — the exam nerds behind 28,500+ quizzes and 2.1M practice questions across 500+ global exams.
A practical guide for nurses, clinicians, and critical care providers
Intracranial pressure (ICP) monitoring measures the pressure inside the skull to assess brain health in patients with traumatic brain injury (TBI), stroke, hemorrhage, or other neurological conditions. Clinicians use it to prevent secondary brain injury by maintaining adequate cerebral perfusion pressure (CPP).
Why use it today? ICP monitoring guides life-saving interventions in neurocritical care. Without it, clinicians risk missing dangerous pressure spikes that can lead to brain herniation, ischemia, or death.
CPP = MAP – ICP
Fix: Re-level to external auditory meatus every shift and after position changes.
Ignoring waveform morphology
Fix: Assess waveform shape; a rounded P2 = impending crisis.
Over-draining CSF
Fix: Follow protocol (e.g., drain 5–10 mL/hr or per ICP >20 mmHg).
Failing to recalculate CPP
Fix: Recalculate CPP hourly and after interventions (e.g., vasopressors, sedation).
Delaying intervention for plateau waves
A patient with severe TBI has an ICP of 25 mmHg and a MAP of 70 mmHg. What is their CPP, and what is the first intervention you should perform? - A: CPP = 45 mmHg; administer mannitol. - B: CPP = 45 mmHg; increase MAP with norepinephrine. - C: CPP = 95 mmHg; drain CSF. - D: CPP = 95 mmHg; elevate head of bed.
Correct Answer: B - CPP = MAP – ICP = 70 – 25 = 45 mmHg (ischemic risk). - First intervention: Increase MAP to restore CPP (norepinephrine). Mannitol or CSF drainage may follow.
Why the Distractors Are Tempting: - A: Mannitol is a common ICP treatment, but CPP <50 mmHg is an emergency requiring MAP support first. - C: Incorrect CPP calculation (95 mmHg is impossible here). - D: Elevating HOB is standard but won’t fix a CPP of 45 mmHg.
You notice a patient’s ICP waveform has a P2 peak higher than P1. What does this indicate? - A: Normal compliance; no action needed. - B: Increased cerebral blood volume; administer hypertonic saline. - C: Poor brain compliance; prepare for imminent ICP crisis. - D: Artifact from transducer malfunction; re-zero the system.
Correct Answer: C - P2 > P1 = poor compliance (brain is stiff and unable to accommodate volume changes). This often precedes ICP spikes.
Why the Distractors Are Tempting: - A: P2 > P1 is never normal. - B: Hypertonic saline may help, but the priority is recognizing the crisis. - D: Artifact is possible, but P2 elevation is a classic sign of poor compliance.
A patient with an EVD has an ICP of 18 mmHg. The nurse drains 20 mL of CSF over 30 minutes, and the ICP drops to 8 mmHg. What is the most likely complication of this intervention? - A: Rebound intracranial hypertension. - B: Subdural hematoma from rapid decompression. - C: Infection (ventriculitis). - D: Overdrainage leading to slit ventricles.
Correct Answer: B - Rapid CSF drainage can cause subdural hematoma due to tearing of bridging veins.
Why the Distractors Are Tempting: - A: Rebound hypertension is possible but less likely with a single drainage. - C: Infection is a risk with EVDs but not related to drainage volume. - D: Slit ventricles occur with chronic overdrainage, not acute.
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