By Fatskills Exam Guides Team — the exam nerds behind 28,500+ quizzes and 2.1M practice questions across 500+ global exams.
A Practical Guide for Nurses & Clinicians
Neurological emergencies—stroke, increased intracranial pressure (ICP), and seizures—are life-threatening conditions requiring rapid assessment and intervention. This guide provides a high-yield, actionable framework for recognizing, stabilizing, and managing these emergencies in clinical settings.
Why use it today? Neurological emergencies account for 1 in 10 deaths worldwide and are a leading cause of disability. Early recognition and intervention can preserve brain function, reduce mortality, and improve outcomes—but delays cost lives.
Scenario: 65M presents with right-sided weakness and slurred speech (LKW 1 hour ago).
Expected Outcome: - Improved NIHSS score (e.g., from 12-4). - No tPA complications (e.g., intracranial hemorrhage).
A 72M presents with left-sided weakness and aphasia (LKW 2 hours ago). CT head is negative for hemorrhage. BP is 190/110 mmHg. What is the next best step?
A. Administer tPA immediately. B. Lower BP to <185/110 mmHg before tPA. C. Give aspirin 325 mg PO. D. Obtain MRI before treatment.
Correct Answer: B Explanation: tPA requires SBP <185 mmHg to reduce hemorrhage risk. Lower BP first (e.g., labetalol 10–20 mg IV), then give tPA. Why the Distractors Are Tempting: - A: tPA is correct after BP control. - C: Aspirin is contraindicated in the first 24h post-tPA. - D: MRI is not needed for tPA decision (CT is sufficient).
A 30F with TBI develops Cushing’s Triad (BP 220/120, HR 40, irregular respirations). What is the most likely cause?
A. Hypovolemic shock B. Brain herniation C. Sepsis D. Opioid overdose
Correct Answer: B Explanation: Cushing’s Triad = late sign of increased ICP-brain herniation. Why the Distractors Are Tempting: - A: Hypovolemia causes tachycardia + hypotension (opposite of Cushing’s). - C: Sepsis causes tachycardia + hypotension (not bradycardia). - D: Opioids cause bradypnea + hypotension (not hypertension).
A 50M with alcohol withdrawal has a tonic-clonic seizure lasting 6 minutes. He is postictal but breathing spontaneously. What is the next priority?
A. Administer lorazepam 4 mg IV. B. Check glucose and electrolytes. C. Intubate immediately. D. Start phenytoin infusion.
Correct Answer: B Explanation: Hypoglycemia and electrolyte imbalances (e.g., hyponatremia) are common causes of seizures in alcohol withdrawal. Treat the underlying cause first. Why the Distractors Are Tempting: - A: Benzos are second-line (after correcting metabolic causes). - C: Intubation is not needed if breathing is adequate. - D: Phenytoin is third-line (after benzos + correcting metabolic issues).
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