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CAIA Level II Study Guide
Measures ability to: - Compare access vehicles (cost, transparency, control). - Assess trade-offs (liquidity vs. alpha, fees vs. diversification). - Apply due diligence (operational risks, manager selection). - Interpret regulatory constraints (e.g., UCITS, ’40 Act funds).
Hedge funds are illiquid, high-fee, and complex—requiring specialized access methods. CAIA Level II focuses on how investors access them (e.g., FoFs, SMAs) and why (diversification, risk mitigation). Critical for institutional allocators, consultants, and compliance teams.
Intermediate
Assuming "diversified access" = lower risk. - Reality: FoFs and liquid alts add layered fees and liquidity mismatches (e.g., daily liquidity vs. underlying HF lock-ups). -Example: A liquid alt fund holding illiquid HFs may face redemption runs.
What it tests: Recognition of access vehicle trade-offs. Example: Which access method offers the highest transparency but requires the most operational oversight? A) Fund of Funds B) Direct Hedge Fund C) Managed Account D) Liquid Alternative Correct Answer: C) Managed Account. Key Tip: Eliminate FoFs (diversified but opaque) and liquid alts (constrained).
What it tests: Fee impact on net returns. Example: A FoF charges 1% management fee and 10% performance fee (no hurdle). If the underlying HFs return 8%, what is the investor’s net return? Answer: 8% – 1% – 10%(8% – 1%) = 6.1%. Key Tip: Always subtract management fee before* calculating performance fee.
What it tests: Due diligence and vehicle selection. Example: A pension fund with $500M seeks hedge fund exposure. It requires quarterly liquidity, low fees, and compliance with ’40 Act rules. Recommend an access method and justify. Answer Frame: 1. Liquid Alts: Meets ’40 Act compliance and liquidity needs. 2. Fee Advantage: Lower fees than FoFs (no overlay). 3. Trade-off: Strategy constraints (e.g., no leverage > 300%). 4. Due Diligence: Verify manager’s ability to deliver alpha within constraints. Key Tip: Address all constraints (liquidity, fees, regulation) explicitly.
What it tests: Liquidity risk assessment. Example: A FoF holds 10 HFs, each with a 1-year lock-up. The FoF offers quarterly redemptions. What risk does this create? Answer: Liquidity mismatch—FoF may face redemption requests it cannot meet if underlying HFs are locked. Key Tip: Identify the underlying asset liquidity vs. promised liquidity.
Fee Shortcut: - FoF fees ≈ 2% + 10% (1% FoF + 1% HF mgmt + 10% HF perf). - Liquid alts ≈ 1% + 0% (no performance fee).
An endowment invests $10M in a FoF with 10 underlying HFs. One HF blows up. What happens? - Notice: FoF diversifies idiosyncratic risk, but netting risk may drag overall returns.
A family office wants daily liquidity but hedge fund-like returns. What’s the best vehicle? - Notice: Liquid alts (e.g., mutual funds) offer liquidity but constrained strategies (e.g., no short-selling).
A UCITS-compliant FoF holds 15 HFs. One HF exceeds the 10% single-issuer limit. What’s the risk? - Notice: Regulatory breach—UCITS requires diversification; may force divestment.
Question: What is the primary advantage of a managed account over a direct hedge fund investment? A) Lower fees B) Greater transparency C) Higher returns D) No lock-up period Correct Answer: B) Greater transparency. Explanation: Managed accounts provide position-level data; fees may be similar or higher.
Question: A FoF charges 1% management fee and 10% performance fee (5% hurdle). If the FoF returns 6%, what is the net return? A) 4.4% B) 4.9% C) 5.3% D) 5.5% Correct Answer: B) 4.9%. Calculation: 6% – 1% – 10%(6% – 5%) = 4.9%. Trap Option:* A) Ignores the hurdle rate.
Question: An investor in a liquid alt fund (’40 Act) expects hedge fund-like returns. What constraint is most likely to disappoint them? A) Daily liquidity B) Leverage limits C) Performance fees D) Manager selection Correct Answer: B) Leverage limits. Explanation: ’40 Act funds cap leverage at 300%, limiting alpha potential. Trap Option: C) Liquid alts typically don’t charge performance fees.
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