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CAIA Level I Study Guide
CAIA tests this topic to assess: - Risk-adjusted return judgment (e.g., distinguishing between senior secured vs. subordinated debt). - Structuring logic (e.g., covenants, collateral, and waterfall payments). - Liquidity and credit risk analysis (e.g., cash flow stability, default probabilities). - Regulatory awareness (e.g., Dodd-Frank, Basel III impacts on private lending). - Performance benchmarking (e.g., comparing private credit to public fixed income or private equity).
Private credit and cash-based strategies are a core alternative investment in CAIA Level I, bridging private equity and fixed income. They matter because: - Yield premium: Private credit offers higher returns than public bonds (illiquidity premium). - Diversification: Low correlation to equities and public debt. - Structural tailwinds: Bank retrenchment post-2008 and Basel III created demand for non-bank lending. - Exam focus: Valuation, risk, and structuring (e.g., direct lending vs. distressed debt).
Intermediate
Formula: Recovery rate = (Collateral value – Senior claims) / Subordinated claims.
Cash Flow Coverage Ratios:
Debt Service Coverage Ratio (DSCR) = (EBITDA – CapEx) / (Interest + Principal) (≥1.2x is safe).
Illiquidity Premium:
Treating private credit as a "set-and-forget" asset class. - Why it’s tempting: Private credit funds market "stable income" and "low volatility." - Reality: Requires active monitoring (covenant compliance, collateral valuation, macro risks). - Exam trap: Questions may test liquidity risk (e.g., "What happens if a fund must sell loans in a downturn?").
What it tests: Definition of mezzanine debt. Example: Which of the following best describes mezzanine debt? A) Senior secured loans with floating rates B) Subordinated debt with equity upside C) Government-guaranteed bonds D) Short-term commercial paper Correct Answer: B Key Tip: Eliminate options that describe senior debt (A), public securities (C/D).
What it tests: Recovery rate calculation. Example: A company has $100M in assets, $60M in senior secured debt, and $30M in mezzanine debt. If assets are liquidated for $80M, what is the recovery rate for mezzanine lenders? Answer: ($80M – $60M) / $30M = 66.7%. Key Tip: Always subtract senior claims first.
What it tests: Risk comparison. Example: Explain two key differences between direct lending and distressed debt. Answer: 1. Risk profile: Direct lending is senior secured (lower risk); distressed debt is often unsecured or equity-like (higher risk). 2. Return drivers: Direct lending earns yield + fees; distressed debt profits from asset appreciation post-restructuring. Key Tip: Contrast income vs. capital gains and seniority.
What it tests: Structuring and risk assessment. Example: A private credit fund is underwriting a $50M senior secured loan to a manufacturing company. The company has $20M EBITDA, $80M in total debt, and $100M in collateral. The loan has a 10% interest rate and a 5-year term. Calculate the ICR and DSCR. Should the fund approve the loan? Answer: - ICR = $20M / ($50M × 10%) = 4.0x (strong). - DSCR = ($20M – $5M CapEx) / ($5M interest + $10M principal) = 1.0x (weak). - Decision: Reject or renegotiate (DSCR < 1.2x is risky). Key Tip: Always check both ICR and DSCR—one strong ratio doesn’t offset a weak one.
Eliminate wrong answers in MCQs using "seniority logic": - If a question asks about recovery rates, the most senior claim is always correct. - If a question asks about risk, the most subordinated option is usually the riskiest.
A private credit fund lends $10M to a software company at SOFR + 6%. The loan is senior secured with a 1.5x ICR covenant. Six months later, the company’s EBITDA drops to $1M (from $2M). What to notice: Covenant breach (ICR = $1M / $0.6M interest = 1.67x → still compliant, but close to 1.5x).
A distressed debt fund buys a $50M loan trading at 40 cents on the dollar. The company’s assets are worth $60M, and senior debt is $40M. The fund plans to convert debt to equity in a restructuring. What to notice: Recovery potential ($60M – $40M = $20M for $20M of debt → 100% recovery if converted to equity).
A private credit fund offers a unitranche loan (blending senior and mezzanine) to a retail company. The loan has no maintenance covenants but includes a "springing lien" clause. What to notice: "Springing lien" activates if financials deteriorate, giving the lender seniority—hidden risk in covenant-lite loans.
Question: Which of the following is a characteristic of direct lending? A) Traded on public exchanges B) Senior secured, floating-rate loans C) Government-guaranteed D) Short-term (≤1 year) Correct Answer: B Explanation: Direct lending is non-bank, senior secured, and typically floating-rate (SOFR/LIBOR + spread). Trap Option: A (direct lending is private, not public).
Question: A mezzanine loan has a 12% cash interest rate and a 3% PIK (payment-in-kind) toggle. If the borrower elects PIK for one year, what is the effective interest rate? A) 12% B) 15% C) 15.36% D) 18% Correct Answer: C Explanation: PIK compounds: 1.12 × 1.03 = 1.1536 → 15.36%. Trap Option: B (ignores compounding).
Question: A private credit fund invests $100M in a senior secured loan with a 10% coupon. The loan defaults after 2 years, and the recovery rate is 70%. What is the IRR? A) -10% B) -15% C) -20% D) -25% Correct Answer: B Explanation: - Year 1: +$10M - Year 2: +$10M - Year 2 (default): +$70M recovery - IRR = -15% (use Excel’s XIRR or trial-and-error). Trap Option: C (assumes 50% recovery).
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