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CAIA Level I Study Guide
CAIA assesses your ability to: - Quantify credit risk (e.g., probability of default, loss given default) in illiquid private markets. - Evaluate hedging tools (e.g., credit derivatives) for risk transfer in PE/PD portfolios. - Apply regulatory logic (e.g., capital requirements, stress testing) to private credit exposures. - Make judgment calls on deal structuring, covenant design, and workout scenarios.
Private equity and private debt rely on credit risk management to protect capital. Unlike public markets, private credit lacks liquidity and transparency, making risk assessment harder. CAIA tests how credit derivatives (e.g., CDS) and risk models (e.g., Merton model) apply to illiquid loans. This topic bridges finance theory (e.g., structural models) and real-world deal execution (e.g., covenant breaches).
Intermediate
Expected Loss (EL): EL = Probability of Default (PD) × Loss Given Default (LGD) × Exposure at Default (EAD) Key: PD is borrower-specific; LGD depends on collateral.
EL = Probability of Default (PD) × Loss Given Default (LGD) × Exposure at Default (EAD)
Credit Default Swap (CDS) Pricing: CDS Spread ≈ (1 – Recovery Rate) × Default Probability × (1 + Risk-Free Rate) Key: Higher recovery rate → lower CDS spread.
CDS Spread ≈ (1 – Recovery Rate) × Default Probability × (1 + Risk-Free Rate)
Regulatory Capital (Basel III):
Assuming public-market credit models apply directly to private debt. Why it’s tempting: Familiarity with corporate bonds or CDS on public debt. Reality: Private debt lacks: - Market prices (no mark-to-market). - Credit ratings (rely on internal models). - Liquidity (workout costs are higher). Fix: Adjust models for illiquidity (e.g., higher LGD) and use stress testing.
PD × LGD × EAD
Capital = Risk-Weighted Assets × 8%
What it tests: Definition of credit risk in private debt. Example: "What is the primary driver of loss given default (LGD) in a mezzanine loan?" Key Tip: Link LGD to collateral (e.g., "Seniority and asset tangibility").
What it tests: Expected loss calculation. Example: "A private debt fund lends $10M to a firm with a 5% PD and 40% LGD. What is the expected loss?" Key Tip: Show formula: EL = $10M × 5% × 40% = $200K.
EL = $10M × 5% × 40% = $200K
What it tests: Hedging strategy. Example: "A PE fund holds $50M in senior secured loans. How would you use CDS to hedge credit risk? Discuss pricing, counterparty risk, and limitations." Key Tip: 1. Pricing: Compare CDS spread to EL = PD × (1 – Recovery Rate). 2. Counterparty risk: Mention AIG 2008. 3. Limitations: Basis risk (CDS vs. loan mismatch).
EL = PD × (1 – Recovery Rate)
What it tests: Covenant breach response. Example: "A portfolio company breaches its debt/EBITDA covenant. As the lender, outline your next steps, including risk assessment and potential outcomes." Key Tip: 1. Assess severity: Is it a temporary blip or structural issue? 2. Negotiate: Waiver, amendment, or acceleration. 3. Hedge: Buy CDS if default risk rises.
CDS Spread ≈ Expected Loss - If a loan’s EL = 2%, a CDS spread of 200 bps (2%) is "fair value." - Use: Quick sanity check for hedge pricing.
EL = 2%
Scenario: A private debt fund lends $20M to a retail chain. The loan is senior secured by inventory. What to notice: Collateral (inventory) has low recovery value in distress → high LGD.
Scenario: A PE-owned software firm breaches its interest coverage covenant. The lender buys CDS protection. What to notice: CDS pricing should reflect increased PD, but counterparty risk may offset benefits.
Scenario: A fund holds a $10M mezzanine loan and buys a $10M CDS. The borrower defaults, but the CDS seller (a hedge fund) also defaults. What to notice: Double default → no payout. Always check counterparty creditworthiness.
Question: What does a credit default swap (CDS) protect against? Options: A) Interest rate risk B) Default risk C) Liquidity risk D) Market risk Correct Answer: B) Default risk Explanation: CDS transfers credit risk (default) to the protection seller. Trap Option: A) Interest rate risk (tempting because swaps are involved, but CDS is credit-specific).
Question: A private debt fund estimates a borrower’s PD at 3% and LGD at 50%. The loan amount is $50M. What is the expected loss? Options: A) $750K B) $1.5M C) $2.5M D) $5M Correct Answer: A) $750K Explanation: EL = $50M × 3% × 50% = $750K. Trap Option: B) $1.5M (ignores LGD).
EL = $50M × 3% × 50% = $750K
Question: A PE fund uses the Merton model to estimate PD for a private firm. Which assumption is most problematic? Options: A) Firm assets follow a lognormal distribution B) Debt is zero-coupon C) Equity is a call option on assets D) Firm has publicly traded equity Correct Answer: D) Firm has publicly traded equity Explanation: Merton model requires public equity data; private firms lack this. Trap Option: C) Equity is a call option (true, but not the biggest issue for private firms).
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