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CAIA tests this to assess: - Ability to identify mispricing using quantitative and qualitative comparisons. - Judgment in selecting appropriate benchmarks (e.g., peers, historical norms, models). - Risk awareness in arbitrage strategies (e.g., basis risk, liquidity constraints). - Compliance logic—ensuring trades align with fund mandates and regulatory limits.
Relative value methods sit at the intersection of quantitative finance and hedge fund strategies in CAIA Level II. They matter because: - Exploit inefficiencies without directional market exposure. - Require precise model selection (e.g., yield curve, credit spreads, volatility surfaces). - Critical for risk management—mispricing can signal liquidity traps or structural shifts.
Intermediate (requires comfort with spreads, models, and risk constraints).
Assuming spreads are stationary. - Why it’s tempting: Historical data often shows mean reversion, but structural breaks (e.g., 2008, COVID) can make spreads non-stationary. - How to avoid: Test for regime shifts (e.g., Chow test, CUSUM) before assuming mean reversion.
What it tests: Definition of OAS. Example: Which of the following best describes the Option-Adjusted Spread (OAS)? A) The spread added to the Treasury yield to match a bond’s price. B) The spread adjusted for embedded options, reflecting the bond’s credit risk. C) The difference between a bond’s YTM and the risk-free rate. D) The spread between two bonds with the same maturity but different coupons.
Correct Answer: B Key Tip: OAS excludes optionality—it’s the spread after adjusting for embedded options.
What it tests: Z-spread vs. OAS. Example: A callable bond has a Z-spread of 200 bps and an option cost of 50 bps. What is its OAS? Answer: OAS = Z-spread – Option cost = 200 bps – 50 bps = 150 bps. Key Tip: OAS is always ≤ Z-spread for callable bonds.
What it tests: Arbitrage strategy design. Example: Stock A and Stock B have historically traded at a price ratio of 1.2. Currently, A trades at $60 and B at $45. The ratio is now 1.33. Describe a relative value trade, including entry/exit rules and risks. Answer Frame: 1. Trade: Long Stock B, short Stock A (ratio > historical mean). 2. Entry: Ratio > 1.25 (2σ from mean). 3. Exit: Ratio reverts to 1.2 or hits 1.4 (stop-loss). 4. Risks: - Basis risk: Stocks may decouple (e.g., earnings surprise). - Liquidity risk: Shorting Stock A may be costly. - Regime risk: Structural change (e.g., sector rotation). Key Tip: Always quantify the spread (e.g., ratio, yield difference) and set stop-losses.
What it tests: Model selection and risk management. Example: A hedge fund uses a pairs trading strategy on two semiconductor stocks (AMD and NVDA). The spread (AMD – NVDA) has a mean of 0.5 and σ = 0.1. Currently, AMD is $150 and NVDA is $200 (spread = –0.25). 1. Should the fund enter a trade? If so, what position? 2. What risks should the fund monitor? 3. How would you adjust the strategy if NVDA announces a stock split?
Answer Frame: 1. Trade: Yes. Spread (–0.25) < mean (0.5) – 2σ (0.3) = 0.1. Short NVDA, long AMD. 2. Risks: - Basis risk: AMD/NVDA correlation may break (e.g., supply chain issues). - Liquidity risk: NVDA is highly liquid; AMD may have wider bid-ask. - Event risk: Earnings, regulatory changes. 3. Adjustment for stock split: - Recalculate spread post-split (e.g., NVDA at $100 → new spread = 150 – 100 = 50). - Rebalance weights to maintain dollar neutrality. Key Tip: Always re-test assumptions after corporate actions (splits, dividends).
Eliminate wrong OAS answers fast: - If a bond is callable, OAS < Z-spread. - If a bond is putable, OAS > Z-spread. - If no options, OAS = Z-spread.
Two oil stocks, XOM and CVX, have a 5-year correlation of 0.9. XOM is $100, CVX is $90. The historical spread is $10. Today, XOM is $105, CVX is $85. What’s the trade? What to notice: Spread widened to $20 (vs. $10 mean). Trade: Long CVX, short XOM.
A hedge fund runs a pairs trade on Coca-Cola (KO) and Pepsi (PEP). The spread (KO – PEP) has a mean of $5 with σ = $1.5. KO is $60, PEP is $50 (spread = $10). The fund enters a trade. Two weeks later, KO is $62, PEP is $55 (spread = $7). What should the fund do? What to notice: Spread tightened from $10 to $7 (still > mean + 2σ). Action: Hold or add to position (not yet at exit threshold).
A bond trader observes that a 5-year Treasury yields 3%, while a 5-year BBB corporate bond yields 5%. The Z-spread is 200 bps, but the OAS is 150 bps. What does this imply? What to notice: OAS < Z-spread → bond has embedded options (likely callable). The 50 bps difference is the option cost.
Question: Which of the following is a key assumption of pairs trading? A) The two assets are uncorrelated. B) The spread between the assets is mean-reverting. C) One asset is always overpriced. D) The strategy requires leverage.
Correct Answer: B Explanation: Pairs trading relies on mean reversion in the spread. Trap Option: A (uncorrelated assets would make the strategy useless).
Question: A callable bond has a Z-spread of 250 bps and an OAS of 200 bps. What is the option cost? A) 50 bps B) 200 bps C) 250 bps D) 450 bps
Correct Answer: A Explanation: Option cost = Z-spread – OAS = 250 – 200 = 50 bps. Trap Option: D (adding instead of subtracting).
Question: A hedge fund runs a pairs trade on two tech stocks with a historical spread mean of $10 and σ = $2. The current spread is $14. The fund enters a trade. After one week, the spread is $13. What is the most likely reason the fund would exit the trade? A) The spread tightened to $13. B) The spread is still > mean + 2σ ($14). C) The correlation between the stocks dropped to 0.5. D) The fund hit its stop-loss at $15.
Correct Answer: C Explanation: Correlation breakdown (0.5) violates the strategy’s core assumption. Trap Option: A (spread tightening is good; no exit yet).
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