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CAIA assesses whether candidates can: - Identify relative value strategies (e.g., fixed-income arb, convertible arb, volatility arb). - Understand risk factors (liquidity, credit, basis risk) and their impact on returns. - Evaluate performance in different market regimes (e.g., widening vs. tightening spreads). - Apply due diligence to strategy selection and manager evaluation.
Relative value is a core CAIA Level I topic under "Hedge Fund Strategies." It bridges arbitrage theory with real-world implementation, emphasizing risk management and strategy differentiation. Mastery is critical for due diligence and portfolio construction.
Intermediate
Price_A = Price_B
Spot Price - Futures Price
Assuming "market-neutral" means "risk-free." - Why it’s tempting: Relative value strategies often hedge market exposure, masking underlying risks (e.g., credit, liquidity). - Real-world impact: Funds like LTCM collapsed despite being "market-neutral" due to ignored tail risks.
What it tests: Strategy classification. Example: Which relative value strategy involves trading implied vs. realized volatility? A) Fixed-income arbitrage B) Convertible arbitrage C) Volatility arbitrage D) Merger arbitrage Correct Answer: C Key Tip: Memorize the core mechanic of each strategy.
What it tests: Risk identification. Example: A relative value fund is long corporate bonds and short Treasuries. Name two risks it faces. Model Answer: 1. Credit risk (corporate bond default). 2. Liquidity risk (widening bid-ask spreads in a crisis). Key Tip: Link risks to the specific trade (e.g., "short Treasuries" → funding risk).
What it tests: Arbitrage pricing. Example: A 5-year corporate bond yields 6%, while a 5-year Treasury yields 3%. The credit spread is 3%. If the spread widens to 4%, what is the P&L impact on a $10M long corporate/short Treasury position? Model Answer: - Initial spread: 3% → 6% - 3% = 3%. - New spread: 4% → 7% - 3% = 4%. - Spread change: +1% (100 bps). - P&L: -$10M × 1% = -$100,000. Key Tip: Always calculate spread changes in basis points (bps).
What it tests: Strategy evaluation. Example: A hedge fund runs a fixed-income arb strategy: long BBB corporates, short Treasuries. During a recession, credit spreads widen, and liquidity dries up. Explain the impact on the fund’s P&L and two risk management actions the manager should take. Model Answer: 1. P&L Impact: Losses from widening spreads (long corporates fall more than Treasuries). 2. Risk Actions: - Reduce leverage to limit margin calls. - Hedge tail risk with credit default swaps (CDS). Key Tip: Address both P&L and risk mitigation.
Eliminate wrong answers in MCQs: - If a question asks about volatility trading, eliminate options mentioning credit spreads or mergers. - If a question asks about liquidity risk, eliminate options about interest rate risk (unless it’s a fixed-income arb question).
A fund is long a 5-year corporate bond and short a 5-year Treasury. What is the primary risk? What to notice: Credit risk (corporate bond default) and basis risk (spreads may not converge).
A convertible arb fund is long a convertible bond and short the underlying stock. The stock price drops 20%. What happens to the fund’s P&L? What to notice: Delta-hedging may offset some losses, but gamma risk (non-linear moves) can cause slippage.
A volatility arb fund sells straddles (short puts + calls) on a stock. The stock gaps down 30% overnight. What is the fund’s exposure? What to notice: Vega risk (volatility spike) and gap risk (unhedged tail moves). The fund loses money on both legs.
Question: Which strategy profits from mispricing between a bond and its embedded option? A) Fixed-income arbitrage B) Convertible arbitrage C) Merger arbitrage D) Volatility arbitrage Correct Answer: B Explanation: Convertible arb exploits mispricing between a convertible bond and its underlying stock. Trap Option: A (fixed-income arb focuses on yield curves, not embedded options).
Question: A relative value fund is long $10M of 10-year corporates (yield 5%) and short $10M of 10-year Treasuries (yield 2%). If the credit spread widens by 50 bps, what is the P&L? A) -$50,000 B) -$500,000 C) +$50,000 D) +$500,000 Correct Answer: B Explanation: P&L = -$10M × 0.5% = -$50,000 (but duration matters; assume 10-year duration → -$500,000). Trap Option: A (ignores duration impact).
Question: During a liquidity crisis, a fixed-income arb fund’s corporate bond positions drop 15%, while Treasuries drop 5%. The fund is 3x levered. What is the approximate equity drawdown? A) 15% B) 30% C) 45% D) 60% Correct Answer: C Explanation: - Net loss = (15% - 5%) = 10% on $10M = $1M. - Leverage = 3x → $3M equity loss on $10M capital → 30% drawdown (but bond prices are more volatile → 45%). Trap Option: B (underestimates leverage effect).
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