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CAIA Level II Study Guide
Tests your ability to: - Assess manager skill vs. luck (performance persistence). - Identify operational risks (fraud, compliance, key-person risk). - Balance quantitative metrics (Sharpe ratio, tracking error) with qualitative factors (team stability, investment process). - Document decisions for fiduciary/compliance standards (e.g., GIPS, UCITS).
Due diligence is the backbone of manager selection in alternatives. CAIA Level II emphasizes process over outcomes—exams test whether you can distinguish a skilled manager from a lucky one, spot red flags, and justify selections under fiduciary standards. This topic bridges quantitative analysis (e.g., regression-based style analysis) and qualitative judgment (e.g., team interviews, reference checks).
Intermediate
Portfolio: Style drift, concentration risk, liquidity mismatches.
Operational Due Diligence (ODD) Checklist:
Compliance: GIPS compliance, AIFMD/SEC filings, AML checks.
Quantitative Filters:
The "Halo Effect": - What it is: Assuming a manager is strong in all areas because they excel in one (e.g., great returns → must have great ODD). - How to avoid: Score each 4-P category independently (e.g., 1–5 scale) and set minimum thresholds (e.g., no category < 3).
What it tests: Definition of a key term. Example: "What is the primary purpose of a side letter in fund due diligence?" Options: A) To reduce fees for all investors B) To grant special terms to favored investors C) To increase fund liquidity D) To comply with GIPS standards Correct Answer: B Key Tip: Side letters are red flags—they create unequal treatment.
What it tests: Identifying a red flag. Example: "An equity long-short fund reports 3-year annualized returns of 25% with a Sharpe ratio of 2.5. In due diligence, you discover the fund’s R² vs. the S&P 500 is 0.95. What is the most likely issue?" Options: A) The fund is taking excessive risk B) The fund is closet indexing C) The fund has high alpha D) The fund has low tracking error Correct Answer: B Key Tip: High R² + high returns = likely beta exposure, not skill.
What it tests: Comparing managers. Example: "Manager A has a 5-year Sharpe of 1.8 and a max drawdown of 15%. Manager B has a Sharpe of 1.2 and a max drawdown of 8%. Both are market-neutral funds. Which manager would you prefer, and why?" Answer Frame: 1. Risk-Adjusted Returns: Manager A has higher Sharpe but higher drawdown risk. 2. Consistency: Manager B’s lower drawdown suggests better risk controls. 3. Decision: Prefer Manager B if capital preservation is a priority. Justify with fiduciary duty (e.g., "Lower tail risk aligns with client’s risk tolerance").
Key Tip: Always tie to the mandate (e.g., "If the client is risk-averse, Manager B is better").
What it tests: Full due diligence process. Example: "You are selecting a distressed debt manager for a pension fund. Manager X has 3-year returns of 18% (vs. benchmark 5%) but a max drawdown of 30%. Manager Y has 12% returns and a 10% drawdown. Both are GIPS-compliant. The pension fund’s IPS requires liquidity and low volatility. Which manager do you select, and what additional due diligence steps would you take?" Answer Frame: 1. Quantitative Comparison: - Manager X: Higher returns but higher drawdown (violates IPS). - Manager Y: Lower returns but better risk profile. 2. Qualitative Factors: - Manager X: Check for style drift (e.g., is the drawdown due to illiquid positions?). - Manager Y: Verify liquidity terms (gates, lock-ups). 3. ODD Steps: - Review auditor reports for both. - Check side letters (any liquidity preferences?). - Interview portfolio managers on risk controls. 4. Decision: Select Manager Y (aligns with IPS). Document: - "Manager Y’s lower drawdown and liquidity terms meet the pension fund’s risk/return requirements."
Key Tip: Explicitly link to the IPS (e.g., "Manager Y’s drawdown is within the IPS limit of 15%").
What it tests: Operational due diligence. Example: "During ODD, you discover a hedge fund’s administrator is also its prime broker. What is the most significant risk?" Options: A) Higher fees B) Conflict of interest C) Reduced liquidity D) Lower returns Correct Answer: B Explanation: - Why right: The administrator (valuing assets) and prime broker (executing trades) have conflicting incentives (e.g., overvaluing illiquid positions). - Why tempting: Option A (fees) is a concern but not the primary risk. Option B is a governance failure.
The "3-Question Test" for Quick Screening: 1. Is the manager GIPS-compliant? (If no, eliminate.) 2. Does the team have >5 years’ tenure? (If no, flag for ODD.) 3. Is the max drawdown <2x the benchmark’s? (If no, eliminate.) Use this to filter 80% of managers in <5 minutes.
Scenario: A private equity fund reports 25% IRR but has no key-person clause. What to notice: Key-person risk—if the star PM leaves, performance may collapse.
Scenario: A hedge fund’s R² vs. the S&P 500 jumps from 0.7 to 0.95 after a strategy change. What to notice: Style drift—the fund is now closet indexing, reducing alpha potential.
Scenario: A fund-of-funds manager selects a hedge fund with 30% returns but no gates and a side letter giving one investor liquidity preferences. What to notice: Liquidity mismatch + governance risk—side letters create unequal treatment, and no gates mean forced liquidations in a crisis.
Question: What is the primary purpose of operational due diligence (ODD)? Options: A) To maximize returns B) To assess fraud and compliance risks C) To compare fees D) To predict future performance Correct Answer: B Explanation: - Why right: ODD focuses on non-performance risks (e.g., fraud, compliance, service provider quality). - Why tempting: Option A (returns) is a performance concern, not ODD.
Question: A fund’s Sharpe ratio increases from 1.2 to 2.0 after it adds leverage. What is the most likely explanation? Options: A) The manager’s skill improved B) The fund took more risk C) The benchmark changed D) The fund’s fees decreased Correct Answer: B Explanation: - Why right: Leverage amplifies returns and volatility, increasing Sharpe ratio without skill improvement. - Why tempting: Option A assumes skill, but Sharpe is risk-adjusted—leverage artificially inflates it.
Question: You are selecting a global macro manager. Manager A has a 5-year Sharpe of 1.5 and a max drawdown of 12%. Manager B has a Sharpe of 1.1 and a max drawdown of 8%. Both are GIPS-compliant. The client’s IPS requires "capital preservation." Which manager do you select, and what additional due diligence is critical? Options: A) Manager A; check for style drift B) Manager B; verify liquidity terms C) Manager A; interview the PM on risk controls D) Manager B; review auditor reports Correct Answer: B Explanation: - Why right: Manager B’s lower drawdown aligns with "capital preservation." Liquidity terms (e.g., gates) are critical for macro funds. - Why tempting: Option A focuses on returns, but the IPS prioritizes risk control.
What to notice: Service provider independence (auditor ≠ administrator ≠ prime broker).
Performance Chasing:
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