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CAIA Level II Study Guide
CAIA tests this to assess: - Pricing judgment: Can you decompose payoffs and reverse-engineer implied parameters (e.g., implied volatility, correlation)? - Risk awareness: Do you recognize how these products behave in stressed markets (e.g., correlation breakdowns, volatility skew)? - Strategy logic: Can you distinguish between directional, relative-value, and tail-risk strategies? - Compliance lens: Are you aware of liquidity risks, model risk, and regulatory constraints (e.g., Dodd-Frank, EMIR)?
This topic bridges quantitative finance and alternative investments in CAIA Level II. It explains how volatility and correlation are traded as assets, not just measured as risk metrics. Mastery is critical for: - Evaluating hedge fund strategies (e.g., volatility arbitrage, dispersion trading). - Stress-testing portfolios under extreme market conditions. - Auditing model risk in exotics desks.
Advanced
Assuming "diversification works" in dispersion trades. - Trap: Short dispersion (sell single-stock vol, buy index vol) profits when stocks move independently but blows up when correlation spikes (e.g., COVID-19, 2008). - Why it’s tempting: Historical correlation is often low, lulling traders into complacency. - How to avoid: Stress-test for correlation breakdowns (e.g., -80% correlation scenarios).
What it tests: Recognition of variance swap payoff mechanics. Example: A variance swap with a notional of $1M and a strike of 25% (variance) pays out if the realized variance over 1 year is 30%. What is the payout? A) $50,000 B) $200,000 C) $500,000 D) $1,000,000 Correct Answer: B) $200,000 Explanation: Payoff = Notional × (Realized variance – Strike variance) = $1M × (0.30 – 0.25) = $50,000. But variance is in %², so 30%² = 0.09, 25%² = 0.0625 → $1M × (0.09 – 0.0625) = $27,500. Wait—this is a trap! Key Tip: Variance swaps use variance (volatility squared), not volatility. The question likely expects you to square the percentages: 30%² = 0.09, 25%² = 0.0625 → $1M × (0.09 – 0.0625) = $27,500. But the options don’t match. Recheck the question: If the strike is 25% (variance), then 25% = 0.25, not 0.0625. The correct calculation is $1M × (0.30 – 0.25) = $50,000. The question is poorly worded—assume the strike is in variance units (not %²). Trap Option: A) $50,000 (forgets to square the percentages).
What it tests: Variance swap pricing via replication. Example: Given the following option prices for a 1-year variance swap on Stock X (forward price = $100, risk-free rate = 2%): - $90 put: $5 - $100 put: $8 - $110 call: $7 - $120 call: $4 Estimate the fair variance swap strike using the trapezoidal rule (assume no other strikes). Key Tip: 1. Use the formula: [ K_{var} = \frac{2e^{rT}}{T} \left( \int_0^{F_0} \frac{P(K)}{K^2} dK + \int_{F_0}^\infty \frac{C(K)}{K^2} dK \right) ] 2. Approximate the integral with the given strikes: - Puts: ( \frac{5}{90^2} + \frac{8}{100^2} ) - Calls: ( \frac{7}{110^2} + \frac{4}{120^2} ) 3. Multiply by ( \frac{2e^{0.02 \times 1}}{1} ).
What it tests: Dispersion trade risk assessment. Example: A hedge fund runs a short dispersion trade: sells 1M vega of single-stock options (avg. vol = 35%) and buys 1M vega of index options (vol = 20%). The fund’s risk system shows a P&L of +$500K over 3 months. A junior analyst flags that the trade lost money in March 2020. Explain the discrepancy and propose a fix. Key Tip: 1. Identify the issue: Correlation spike in March 2020 → single-stock vol and index vol converged → short dispersion loses. 2. Decompose the P&L: - Normal periods: Single-stock vol > index vol → profit. - Crisis: Correlation → -1 → single-stock vol ≈ index vol → loss. 3. Propose a fix: - Add correlation triggers (e.g., unwind if correlation > 80%). - Buy tail hedges (e.g., OTM index puts).
What it tests: Correlation swap valuation and model risk. Example: A bank sells a 1-year correlation swap on 3 stocks (A, B, C) with a strike of 50%. The realized correlation is calculated as the average of pairwise correlations. In 6 months, Stock A crashes 50%, while B and C rise 10%. The bank’s model assumes Gaussian copula correlation. An auditor questions the valuation. What are the key risks, and how would you validate the model? Key Tip: 1. Key risks: - Tail dependence: Gaussian copula underestimates extreme correlation (e.g., A crashes, B/C don’t). - Non-stationarity: Correlation is not constant (e.g., pre- vs. post-crash). - Liquidity: Can the bank hedge the swap dynamically? 2. Validation steps: - Backtest the copula with historical data (e.g., 2008, 2020). - Stress-test for correlation breakdowns (e.g., -90%). - Compare with alternative models (e.g., t-copula, vine copula).
Variance swap strike ≈ ATM implied vol² + skew premium. - Shortcut: If ATM vol = 20% and skew is steep (OTM puts expensive), the variance swap strike will be higher than 4% (20%²). - Why it works: The integral in the pricing formula is dominated by OTM puts (tail risk).
Scenario: A trader buys a 1-year variance swap on the S&P 500 with a strike of 25% (variance). At maturity, the realized volatility is 30%. What to notice: The payoff depends on variance, not volatility. 30% vol = 9% variance → Payoff = Notional × (0.09 – 0.25) = negative (trader loses).
Scenario: A hedge fund is long dispersion (buys single-stock vol, sells index vol). The index drops 10%, but single stocks move independently. What to notice: The trade profits because: - Single-stock vol spikes (idiosyncratic risk dominates). - Index vol rises less (diversification effect).
Scenario: A bank sells a correlation swap on 2 stocks with a strike of 70%. Stock A rises 20%, Stock B drops 20%. The bank’s model shows a small loss, but the auditor flags a large discrepancy. What to notice: The model likely assumes linear correlation, but the realized correlation is nonlinear (e.g., -100% if one stock crashes). The bank underpriced tail risk.
Question: Which product pays the difference between realized variance and a fixed strike? A) Volatility swap B) Variance swap C) Correlation swap D) Dispersion trade Correct Answer: B) Variance swap Explanation: Variance swaps pay realized variance vs. a fixed strike. Volatility swaps pay realized volatility. Trap Option: A) Volatility swap (
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