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CAIA Level II Study Guide
CAIA assesses your ability to: - Price and hedge volatility-dependent products under stochastic volatility models (e.g., Heston). - Interpret structured product term sheets, including triggers, barriers, and coupon conditions. - Assess model risk, liquidity risk, and tail risk in complex payoffs. - Apply volatility arbitrage strategies (e.g., dispersion trading) in multi-asset portfolios.
This topic bridges volatility modeling and structured products, two pillars of alternative investments. CAIA Level II emphasizes: - Modeling volatility (stochastic vs. local volatility, volatility cones). - Structured products (autocallables, reverse convertibles, volatility swaps). - Risk management (vega hedging, gap risk, correlation breakdowns). - Real-world applications (hedge fund strategies, capital-guaranteed notes).
Advanced
Assuming volatility is mean-reverting in all regimes. - Why it’s tempting: Heston model assumes mean-reverting volatility. - Reality: During crises, volatility trends (e.g., 2020 COVID crash). - Exam trap: Questions may test volatility clustering (GARCH effects) vs. mean reversion.
What it tests: Understanding of variance swap payoffs. Example: A variance swap has a strike of 25%. If realized variance is 30%, the payoff is: A) +5% B) +5 volatility points C) +5 variance points D) -5%
Correct Answer: C) +5 variance points Key Tip: Variance swaps pay variance units, not volatility.
What it tests: Variance swap pricing. Example: An asset’s historical volatility is 20%. The risk-free rate is 2%, and the asset’s dividend yield is 1%. Estimate the fair strike of a 1-year variance swap.
Solution Steps: 1. Variance = (0.20^2 = 0.04) (400 vol points). 2. Adjust for drift: (K_{var} = 400 \times e^{(r-q)T} = 400 \times e^{(0.02-0.01) \times 1} \approx 404) vol points. Key Tip: Always adjust for cost of carry (r - q).
What it tests: Structured product risk assessment. Example: A hedge fund sells an autocallable on the S&P 500 with: - Autocall barrier: 100% of initial price (observed monthly). - Coupon: 10% p.a. (paid if autocall triggers). - Knock-in barrier: 70% (continuous). - Maturity: 3 years.
Questions: 1. What are the key risks for the seller? 2. How would you hedge the position?
Key Tips: 1. Risks: Gap risk, short volatility exposure, correlation risk (if basket autocallable). 2. Hedge: Dynamic delta-vega hedging + long downside puts.
Variance Swap Shortcut: - If implied volatility = 20%, fair variance swap strike ≈ (20^2 = 400) vol points. - Adjust for skew: Add 5–10 vol points for OTM puts (common in equity markets).
An investor buys a 1-year variance swap on the S&P 500. The strike is 30% (variance). Over the year, realized volatility is 25%. What is the payoff? What to notice: Payoff = Realized variance - Strike = (25^2 - 30^2 = 625 - 900 = -275) vol points (investor loses).
A bank sells an autocallable on a basket of 5 stocks. The autocall barrier is 100% (observed quarterly). The basket drops 30% in a month. What happens? What to notice: If any observation date hits 100%, the note autocalls. If not, check knock-in barrier (e.g., 70%). If breached, note converts to leveraged downside exposure.
A trader buys a variance swap and sells a volatility swap on the same underlying. What is the net exposure? What to notice: The trader is long vol-of-vol (variance swap convexity > volatility swap). Profits if realized volatility is volatile (e.g., spikes and drops).
Question: Which of the following is a key difference between a variance swap and a volatility swap? A) Variance swaps are model-dependent; volatility swaps are model-free. B) Volatility swaps have linear payoffs; variance swaps have non-linear payoffs. C) Variance swaps pay realized variance minus strike; volatility swaps pay realized volatility minus strike. D) Variance swaps are easier to hedge than volatility swaps.
Correct Answer: C Explanation: Variance swaps pay variance units; volatility swaps pay volatility units. Trap Option: B (reversed logic).
Question: An autocallable note on the Euro Stoxx 50 has: - Autocall barrier: 100% (observed annually). - Coupon: 8% p.a. - Knock-in barrier: 60% (continuous). - Maturity: 3 years.
If the index is at 95% at Year 1, 105% at Year 2, and 55% at Year 3, what is the payoff? A) 100% + 8% coupon at Year 2 B) 100% + 16% coupon at Year 3 C) 55% at Year 3 (no coupon) D) 100% + 24% coupon at Year 3
Correct Answer: A Explanation: Autocall triggers at Year 2 (105% ≥ 100%). Investor gets 100% + 8% coupon. Trap Option: C (ignores autocall feature).
Question: A trader enters a dispersion trade: long single-stock variance swaps on 50 stocks, short a variance swap on the index. Which of the following would most likely cause the trade to lose money? A) Single-stock volatilities rise, index volatility rises more. B) Single-stock volatilities fall, index volatility falls less. C) Correlation between stocks increases. D) Volatility-of-volatility increases.
Correct Answer: C Explanation: Dispersion trades profit when correlation breaks down (single-stock vol > index vol). Higher correlation → losses. Trap Option: A (partial correct, but C is more precise).
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