By Fatskills Exam Guides Team — the exam nerds behind 28,500+ quizzes and 2.1M practice questions across 500+ global exams.
CAIA tests this to assess: - Valuation judgment (DCF, multiples, LBO modeling) - Risk differentiation (illiquidity, leverage, operational risks) - Regulatory awareness (SEC, AIFMD, fund governance) - Performance benchmarking (IRR vs. MOIC, J-curve effects) - Structural analysis (GP/LP terms, waterfalls, carried interest)
Private equity is a core alternative investment in CAIA Level I, bridging corporate finance, portfolio theory, and regulatory compliance. It’s critical for fund selection, due diligence, and performance attribution—key skills for allocators, GPs, and compliance officers. The exam tests structural, valuation, and risk nuances that distinguish PE from public equities.
Intermediate
Debt Capacity = EBITDA × Leverage Multiple (e.g., 5–7× for buyouts)
Performance Metrics
J-Curve Effect: Early negative returns due to fees, later growth
GP/LP Terms & Waterfall
Assuming all PE deals are the same. - Buyout funds focus on mature, cash-flow-positive companies. - Venture capital targets high-growth, pre-revenue startups. - Growth equity invests in scalable, profitable businesses. - Distressed debt buys undervalued debt of struggling firms.
Trap: Applying buyout valuation methods (e.g., LBO) to VC deals (where DCF is often meaningless).
What it tests: Definition of carried interest. Example Question: What is the typical carried interest percentage for a private equity fund? Options: A) 10% B) 20% C) 30% D) 50% Key Tip: Memorize 20% as the standard (though some funds use 15–25%).
What it tests: IRR vs. MOIC distinction. Example Question: A PE fund invests $100M and exits for $300M after 5 years. What is the MOIC? Options: A) 2.0× B) 3.0× C) 20% IRR D) 25% IRR Correct Answer: B) 3.0× Key Tip: MOIC = Total Distributions / Total Paid-In (no time factor).
What it tests: LBO mechanics. Example Question: Explain how leverage increases IRR in an LBO. Key Tip: 1. Lower equity upfront → higher return on smaller base. 2. Tax shield from interest reduces WACC. 3. Debt repayment amplifies equity returns at exit.
What it tests: Deal structuring & valuation. Example Question: A PE firm buys a company for $500M (6× EBITDA) with 60% debt. EBITDA grows from $83M to $120M in 5 years. Exit multiple is 7×. What is the IRR? Key Tip: 1. Exit EV = $120M × 7 = $840M 2. Debt repayment = $300M (60% of $500M) – assume no change 3. Exit Equity = $840M – $300M = $540M 4. IRR = ($540M / $200M)^(1/5) – 1 ≈ 22%
What it tests: Waterfall distribution. Example Question: A PE fund has $100M in profits. The hurdle rate is 8%, and the GP has a 20% carry with a 100% catch-up. How much does the LP receive? Options: A) $80M B) $84M C) $88M D) $92M Correct Answer: B) $84M Explanation: 1. Hurdle = 8% of $100M = $8M → LP gets $8M first. 2. Remaining $92M → GP takes 20% ($18.4M) until 20% of total profits ($20M). 3. GP needs $12M more (catch-up). 4. LP gets $8M + ($92M – $12M) = $88M? No—GP takes 100% of next $12M, so LP gets $8M + $76M = $84M.
IRR vs. MOIC Quick Check: - If cash flows are early → IRR is inflated (use MOIC). - If cash flows are late → IRR is conservative (use IRR). - For absolute returns → MOIC is better. - For time-weighted returns → IRR is better.
A PE fund buys a company for $200M (5× EBITDA) with 50% debt. EBITDA grows 10% annually for 5 years. Exit multiple is 6×. What’s the exit equity value? What to notice: - Exit EV = $200M × 1.1^5 × 6/5 = $322M - Debt repayment = $100M (assuming no change) - Exit Equity = $322M – $100M = $222M
A VC fund invests $10M in a startup at a $50M pre-money valuation. The startup raises another $20M at a $100M pre-money valuation. What’s the VC’s ownership % after the second round? What to notice: - First round: $10M / ($50M + $10M) = 16.67% - Second round: $20M / ($100M + $20M) = 16.67% (new investors) - VC’s diluted ownership = 16.67% × (1 – 16.67%) = 13.9%
A PE fund has a 20% carry with an 8% hurdle. The fund returns $200M on $100M invested. How is the profit split? What to notice: - Hurdle = 8% of $100M = $8M → LP gets $8M first. - Remaining $92M → GP takes 20% ($18.4M). - Total LP = $8M + $73.6M = $81.6M - Total GP = $18.4M - But if there’s a catch-up, GP takes 100% of next $12M (to reach 20% of $100M profit), so LP gets $8M + $70M = $78M, GP gets $22M.
Question: What is the primary source of returns in a leveraged buyout (LBO)? Options: A) Dividend income B) EBITDA growth and debt paydown C) Stock price appreciation D) Interest income Correct Answer: B) EBITDA growth and debt paydown Explanation: LBOs rely on operational improvements and leverage to amplify equity returns.
Question: A PE fund has a 2% management fee and $500M in committed capital. What is the annual fee? Options: A) $5M B) $10M C) $15M D) $20M Correct Answer: B) $10M Explanation: 2% of $500M = $10M/year. Trap: Some funds charge fees on invested capital (not committed), but this question specifies committed capital.
Question: A PE fund invests $100M and exits for $300M after 4 years. The fund has a 20% carry with an 8% hurdle. What is the GP’s carried interest? Options: A) $40M B) $44M C) $50M D) $60M Correct Answer: B) $44M Explanation: 1. Hurdle = 8% of $100M = $8M/year × 4 = $32M → LP gets $32M first. 2. Remaining $268M → GP takes 20% ($53.6M). 3. But total profit = $200M → 20% of $200M = $40M max carry. 4. GP already took $32M (hurdle) + $12M (catch-up) = $44M. Trap: Forgetting the catch-up provision (GP takes 100% of next profits until 20% of total).
Join 4M+ learners. Unlock unlimited quizzes, wrong-answer tracking, flashcards + reminders, study guides, and 1-on-1 challenges.