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CAIA Level II Study Guide
CAIA tests this to assess: - Judgment in asset allocation (liquidity vs. illiquidity premiums). - Risk-adjusted performance evaluation (IRR vs. public market equivalents). - Due diligence skills (structural biases in private vs. listed assets). - Regulatory awareness (disclosure, valuation, and liquidity risks).
This topic bridges portfolio construction and risk management in CAIA Level II. It explains why private assets (PE, real estate, infrastructure) behave differently from listed alternatives (REITs, hedge funds, commodities). Mastery is critical for due diligence, performance reporting, and regulatory compliance.
Intermediate – Requires understanding of both qualitative (structural biases) and quantitative (performance metrics) aspects.
Key insight: If PME > 1, private asset outperformed the public benchmark.
Liquidity Premium
Rule of thumb: 3-5% annual premium over public equivalents.
Structural Biases in Private Assets
Assuming private assets are "safer" because they have lower reported volatility. - Why it’s a trap: Stale pricing and smoothing artificially reduce volatility, masking true risk. - How to avoid: Always adjust for structural biases and compare to PME.
What it tests: Knowledge of structural biases. Example: Which bias causes private equity returns to appear less volatile than they truly are? A) Survivorship bias B) Stale pricing C) Look-ahead bias D) Selection bias Correct Answer: B) Stale pricing Key Tip: Stale pricing = delayed valuations → understated volatility.
What it tests: PME calculation. Example: A private equity fund returns $200M on a $100M investment. The S&P 500 grew from 100 to 150 over the same period. What is the PME? Answer: PME = (200 / 100) / (150 / 100) = 1.33 Key Tip: PME > 1 = outperformance vs. public benchmark.
What it tests: Risk-adjusted comparison. Example: A pension fund considers adding private real estate or REITs to its portfolio. Compare the two on:1. Liquidity2. Volatility3. Performance measurement4. Fees5. Tax efficiency Key Tip: - Liquidity: REITs > private real estate. - Volatility: REITs (higher, correlated with equities). - Performance: Private (PME), REITs (Sharpe ratio). - Fees: Private (higher, carried interest). - Taxes: REITs (pass-through, no corporate tax).
What it tests: Due diligence. Example: A fund-of-funds manager evaluates two private equity funds. Fund A has a 20% IRR but a PME of 0.9. Fund B has a 15% IRR but a PME of 1.2. Which is better? Answer: Fund B (PME > 1 = true outperformance). Key Tip: IRR alone is misleading; always check PME.
PME Shortcut: - If a private asset’s MOIC (Multiple on Invested Capital) > public benchmark’s return multiple, PME > 1. - Example: PE MOIC = 2.5, S&P 500 return = 1.8 → PME > 1.
A private equity fund reports a 25% IRR. The S&P 500 returned 12% over the same period. What should you check next? What to notice: PME (IRR alone is misleading).
A REIT has a Sharpe ratio of 1.2, while a private real estate fund has a Sharpe ratio of 1.8. Which is riskier? What to notice: Private fund’s Sharpe ratio is inflated by smoothing.
A private debt fund has a 10% yield with a 3-year lockup. A high-yield bond ETF has an 8% yield with daily liquidity. Which is better for a pension fund? What to notice: Liquidity needs vs. yield premium.
Question: Which metric is most appropriate for comparing private equity to public equities? A) Sharpe ratio B) PME C) Beta D) Sortino ratio Correct Answer: B) PME Explanation: PME directly compares private returns to a public benchmark.
Question: A private equity fund has an IRR of 18% but a PME of 0.8. What does this indicate? A) The fund outperformed the public market. B) The fund underperformed the public market. C) The IRR is unreliable. D) The fund has high volatility. Correct Answer: B) The fund underperformed the public market. Trap Option: A (IRR alone suggests outperformance, but PME corrects for this).
Question: A private real estate fund reports a 12% annual return with low volatility. A REIT has a 10% return with higher volatility. Which is riskier? A) The private fund, due to illiquidity. B) The REIT, due to higher volatility. C) Both are equally risky. D) Cannot be determined. Correct Answer: A) The private fund, due to illiquidity. Explanation: Low volatility in private assets is often due to smoothing, masking true risk.
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