By Fatskills Exam Guides Team — the exam nerds behind 28,500+ quizzes and 2.1M practice questions across 500+ global exams.
CAIA Level I Study Guide
CAIA assesses whether candidates can: - Price derivatives without arbitrage. - Apply risk-neutral probability to value contingent claims. - Distinguish real-world vs. risk-neutral measures for hedging and speculation. - Interpret how derivatives integrate into alternative asset strategies (e.g., commodities, private equity).
Derivatives and RNV are core to CAIA’s quantitative toolkit. They bridge traditional finance (e.g., Black-Scholes) with alternative assets (e.g., commodity futures, volatility trading). Mastery is critical for Level I’s "Quantitative Foundations" and "Structured Products" sections.
Intermediate
(T): Time to maturity.
Risk-Neutral Valuation (RNV):
Key insight: Investors are indifferent to risk in (Q), so expected returns = risk-free rate.
Put-Call Parity (European Options): [ C_0 + PV(K) = P_0 + S_0 ]
Confusing risk-neutral vs. real-world measures. - Trap: Using real-world probabilities ((P)) to price derivatives (e.g., "There’s a 30% chance the stock goes up, so the option is worth..."). - Fix: Always use risk-neutral probabilities ((Q)) for pricing. Real-world (P) is for investment decisions, not valuation.
What it tests: Recall of forward pricing formula. Example: An investor enters a 6-month forward contract on a non-dividend-paying stock currently trading at $50. The risk-free rate is 4%. What is the forward price? A) $50.00 B) $51.01 C) $52.02 D) $49.02
Key Tip: Memorize (F_0 = S_0 \cdot e^{rT}). Here, (F_0 = 50 \cdot e^{0.04 \cdot 0.5} = 51.01).
What it tests: Application of put-call parity. Example: A European call option on a stock (spot price = $100) has a strike of $95 and expires in 1 year. The risk-free rate is 3%, and the call price is $12. What is the price of a European put with the same strike and expiration?
Key Tip: 1. Use put-call parity: (C_0 + PV(K) = P_0 + S_0). 2. (PV(K) = 95 \cdot e^{-0.03 \cdot 1} = 92.19). 3. Rearrange: (P_0 = C_0 + PV(K) - S_0 = 12 + 92.19 - 100 = 4.19).
What it tests: Risk-neutral valuation in a binomial model. Example: A stock is priced at $40 today. In 1 year, it can rise to $50 (up) or fall to $30 (down). The risk-free rate is 5%. Calculate the price of a 1-year European call option with a strike of $42 using the binomial model.
Key Tip: 1. Calculate risk-neutral probability: [ q = \frac{e^{0.05 \cdot 1} - 0.75}{1.25 - 0.75} = 0.5769 ] (where (u = 50/40 = 1.25), (d = 30/40 = 0.75)). 2. Compute payoffs: (C_u = \max(50 - 42, 0) = 8), (C_d = \max(30 - 42, 0) = 0). 3. Discount expected payoff: [ C_0 = e^{-0.05 \cdot 1} \cdot (0.5769 \cdot 8 + 0.4231 \cdot 0) = 4.38 ]
What it tests: Hedging with futures in commodities. Example: A farmer expects to harvest 10,000 bushels of corn in 3 months. The current spot price is $4/bushel, and the 3-month futures price is $4.20. The farmer wants to lock in a price. Describe the hedge and calculate the effective price received if the spot price at harvest is $3.80.
Key Tip: 1. Short hedge: Sell 10 futures contracts (1 contract = 1,000 bushels). 2. At harvest: - Sell corn in spot market: (10,000 \cdot 3.80 = \$38,000). - Close futures position: Buy back at $3.80, profit = ((4.20 - 3.80) \cdot 10,000 = \$4,000). 3. Effective price: (38,000 + 4,000 = \$42,000) → \$4.20/bushel.
Eliminate wrong options in forward pricing: - If the spot price is higher than the forward price, the market is in backwardation (likely due to high convenience yield or dividends). - If the forward price is higher, it’s contango (typical for storable commodities with no yield).
A gold miner wants to lock in a selling price for 1,000 oz of gold in 6 months. The spot price is $1,800/oz, and the 6-month futures price is $1,850. What should the miner do? - Notice: Short futures to hedge price risk. Effective price = $1,850/oz.
A hedge fund holds a portfolio of stocks and buys put options to protect against a market crash. The put delta is -0.4. How should the fund adjust its stock holdings to maintain a delta-neutral position? - Notice: Sell 40% of the stock portfolio to offset the put’s negative delta.
A trader observes that the 1-year forward price of oil is $80, while the spot price is $75. The risk-free rate is 2%, and storage costs are 1%. What is the implied convenience yield? - Notice: Rearrange the cost-of-carry formula: [ 80 = 75 \cdot e^{(0.02 + 0.01 - y) \cdot 1} \implies y = 0.02 + 0.01 - \ln(80/75) = -0.033 \text{ (or -3.3%)} ] Negative convenience yield implies contango (e.g., oversupply).
Question: Which of the following is NOT a derivative? A) Futures contract B) Swap agreement C) Treasury bond D) Call option
Correct Answer: C) Treasury bond Explanation: - Why right: A Treasury bond is a direct debt instrument, not a derivative. - Trap: Swaps and options are derivatives, tempting learners to overlook bonds.
Question: A stock is priced at $50. A 1-year European call option with a strike of $55 costs $3. The risk-free rate is 4%. What is the price of a European put with the same strike and expiration? A) $5.00 B) $6.19 C) $7.00 D) $8.19
Correct Answer: B) $6.19 Explanation: - Why right: Use put-call parity: [ P_0 = C_0 + PV(K) - S_0 = 3 + 55 \cdot e^{-0.04 \cdot 1} - 50 = 6.19 ] - Trap: Forgetting to discount the strike price (option D ignores discounting).
Question: A commodity’s spot price is $100, and the 6-month futures price is $105. The risk-free rate is 3%, and storage costs are 2%. What is the implied convenience yield? A) -1% B) 0% C) 1% D) 2%
Correct Answer: B) 0% Explanation: - Why right: Rearrange cost-of-carry: [ 105 = 100 \cdot e^{(0.03 + 0.02 - y) \cdot 0.5} \implies y = 0 ] - Trap: Assuming convenience yield is always positive (option C).
Join 4M+ learners. Unlock unlimited quizzes, wrong-answer tracking, flashcards + reminders, study guides, and 1-on-1 challenges.