2002 General Studies Solved Paper I, Paper II

Time Allowed: Three Hours Maximum Marks: 300

Candidates should attempt All questions strictly in accordance with the instruction given under each question.

 

Q. 1 Answer any one of the following (about 250 words): 30

(a) What was the Butler Committee Report? Discuss the reactions on the
Report in India.
Important Points for Answer: Buttler Committee Report
Main Recommendations
Reactions in India

Answer: The relations between Indian Princes and the Crown were not well defined because the extent of sovereignty of the Paramount power were not yet settled properly. To investigate and clarify the relationship between the paramount power and the Princes, the Government appointed the Indian States Committee in 1927. This committee was popularly known as the Butler Committee as Sir Harcourt Butler was its Chairman.
The Committee reported:
“Paramountcy” was considered as definable and adoptable according to the shifting necessities. It pointed towards usages for interpretation of treaties.
Thus, paramountcy was not clearly defined. States were given immunity and were made bound by treaties with the crown.
However, a limitation was imposed that states were not able to hand over power to others without prior consent of the British Indian Government.
The Committee advised that the Viceroy (instead of the Governor-General in Council) should represent the Crown in all dealings with the States.
Therefore, the Viceroy was made the Crown’s agent in dealing with states.
The Committee left ‘Paramountcy’ undefined and thus created ambiguity.
Rather the committee had made the concept vague and left it to be interpreted by usage and Crown’s prerogative and the implied consent of the Princes. Princes were shocked by this definition of paramountcy in the report. They resorted to Constitution of All India Union to save themselves from such vague concept of paramountcy which was certainly left undefined and favourable to the crown for interpretation. Yet they demanded a clear cut definition of paramountcy. Nationalists were shocked that ‘Paramountcy’ was not automatically transferrable from Princes to the possible government in India. (Total 266 words)

(b) Why did Jinnah reject the C. R. Formula ?
Important Points for Answer: C.R. Formula
Main provisions
Reasons for Jinnah’s Rejection

Answer: C. Rajagopalachari come up with a formula to solve the Constitutional crisis between Congress and the Muslim League. Gandhi supported the formula and on the base of this formula, popularly known as
‘C. R. formula’, a talk between Gandhi and Jinnah was held in September

1944.
Main provisions of the formula were :
Muslim League to endorse Congress’s demand for independence. League was required to cooperate with Congress to form an interim government at centre. Plebiscite was to be held in the North-East and North-West areas with
Muslim majority to decide whether they wanted to form a new state, i.e. Pakistan.
Joint agreement was to be made if partition was accepted for safeguarding the areas of defence, commerce, communications, etc.
Only if England transferred full powers to India, the above terms could be operative. But the talk failed due to objections of M. A. Jinnah. He called this formula a plan to cut organs of Pakistan. He regarded it a proposal to confine muslims in their homes.
Jinnah rejected the formula on the following grounds : Partition should be adopted even though England does not transfer full powers to India. He had nothing to do with the independence of the Union of India.
He wanted that in plebiscites in North-East and North-West areas, only muslims should vote and not the whole population.
He also not accepted the common centre for India and Pakistan. Even with regard to the Partition, formula provided it after independence while Jinnah wanted it before independence.
All these were the points why Jinnah rejected the C. R. Formula. (Total 265 words)

Q. 2 Answer any two of the following (about 150 words each): 2 × 15 = 30

(a) Trace the growth of the Indian Home Rule Movement in Britain
Important Points for Answer:
Movement in Britain Spread and Growth Purpose

Answer: The Home Rule Movement was inspired by Irish Home Rule Movement. Branches of the Home Rule League were established in India and abroad. To propagate Indian cause to the British people and through them assert pressure upon the British Parliament, a Home Rule League was established on 7 June 1916 in London. The Secretary-General Major D. Graham Pole spread the movement in England. Its main objectives were accepted to open branches of the League in Britain, to publish materials related to Indian conditions, to organise seminars, meetings and public procession, to make British aware of the Indian situations and thus to bring Home Rule to India.
Mrs. Annie Besant, who played a vital role in Indian Home Rule Movement, was also actively involved in the movement in Britain. The spread of the Indian Home Rule Movement in Britain helped Indian cause to gather support from Britishers. Dadabhai Nairoji had spent most of his life and income in England for the same cause. (Total 163 words)

(b) Evaluate the attitudes of different political parties towards Quit India
Movement.
Important Points for Answer:

Quit India Movement - Origin
Reactions
Opposition Support

Answer: The failure of the Cripps Mission to solve the Constitutional deadlock aroused discontent among Indians. Gandhi gave a call for British withdrawal and a non-violent struggle against possible Japanese invasion.
This was the last biggest mass movement before independence of India.
Though whole country involved in it, many leaders and political parties criticised it.
The Muslim League opposed the movement and cooperated with British against the Quit India Movement calling it a conspiracy for Hindu rule. Even communist party did not favour Quit India Movement. Congress liberals believed it was a movement before time and occasion.
Hindu Mahasabha leaders did not support it.
Akali Dal was also against the Quit India Movement.
Thus, almost all political parties were divided in their opinion and response towards the Quit India movement. However, it was also a reality that except the Muslim League, no other party tried to obstruct it. People from all over India participated in the movement. (Total 158 words)

(c) Review the ‘Dickie Bird Plan’.
Important Points for Answer:
Dickie Bird Plan
Main Provisions
Reaction

Answer: ‘Dickie Bird Plan’ is a nick name of “Mountbatten Plan” which was related to partition of and dominion status to India by the British Government. This plan had a favourable feature that it proposed to transfer power immediately on the basis of dominion status. So there was no need to wait till the enforcement of the new Constitution which would involve long time and process of electing Constituent Assembly and preparing a Draft Constitution.
The plan ruled out any possibility of merger of Hyderabad with Pakistan but it provided for voting and plebiscite in the areas with Muslim majority in
Western frontier districts. It also accepted that provinces coming under such provisions shall have right to decide their fate.
This plan prepared a base and made pre-arrangement for the freedom and partition of India.
Dickie Bird Plan was not accepted by Indian leaders but it created a hope for and fear of partition. (Total 154 words)

Q. 3 Write about the following (not exceeding 20 words each): 15 × 2 = 30

(i) Anandmath

Answer: A famous novel written by Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay in 1882, written in the background of the Sanyasi uprising of Bengal, inspired national movement creating spirit among masses.

(ii) Bismillah Khan

Answer: A famous ‘Shehnai’ player, was awarded Bharat Ratna Award in 2001 for his contribution to Indian classical music and popularising Shehnai.

(iii) Christ Evert

Answer: A profession woman tennis player from USA, won total eighteen single grand slam and three doubles, considered former World No. 1 woman tennis player, recently announced her retirement from the game.

(iv) Chamber of Princes

Answer: A group of Indian Princes formed in 1920 under the Montford reforms in India to act as as an advisory body in India and voice their opinions to and express concerns against British rule.

(v) Dharma Sabha

Answer: Dharma Sabha, established in 1830 by Radha Kant Dev, was aimed at the revival of ancient Hindu religion and reaction to the reformist Hindu leaders.

(vi) Divide et Impera

Answer: It means Divide and Rule, the policy first implemented by Lord Dalhousie in India and then continued till India’s independence.

(vii) Dandi March

Answer: It was held by Gandhiji from Sabarmati Ashram to Dandi with his 78 companions on12 March 1930. It started the Civil Disobedience
Movement by breaking the salt law.

(viii) Garry Kasparov

Answer: World No. 1 Chess Player, many times world champion, the Russian Grand Master who won Chess Oscars, is also writer, poet and activist.

(ix) Keshab Chandra Sen

Answer: A social and religious reformer who joined Brahmo Samaj and later established ‘Bhartiya Brahmo Samaj’ in 1866. He wrote ‘Young Bengal, This is for You’.

(x) Nivedita

Answer: A Scots-Irish social worker, author, teacher, disciple of Swami Vivekananda who joined Ramkrishna Mission, also known as “Bhagini
Nivedita”.

(xi) Pele

Answer: A world famous professional football player of Brazil who is considered all time best football player of the world, voted in 1999 as the
World Player of the Century by IFFHS.

(xii) Raidasa

Answer: Born in 1414 near Banaras, he was a lower caste Saint of medieval age of Bhakti Movement who popularised ‘Bhakti’ among lower untouchable castes.

(xiii) Satyagraha

Answer: It was a method adopted by Gandhi to get justice, first used in South Africa. Satyagraha was the main weapon through which he brought freedom to India.

(xiv) Steffi Graf

Answer: A world famous German woman professional tennis player who won 22 Grand Slams in singles and ranked No. 1 during her career.

(xv) Theodore Beck

Answer: He was a British educationist who became Principal of Islamic Anglo-Oriental College in Aligarh, supported and promoted Islamic Communalism in India.

Q. 4 Answer any two of the following (about 125 words each): 2 × 10 = 20

(a) Give an account of the tea plantations of Assam and West Bengal and state the economic significance of these plantations.
Important Points for Answer:
Tea plantation - climatic requirements
Assam & West Bengal Economic significance

Answer: Assam is the largest producer state of tea in India. Tea is produced in areas of mountains with slope where water does not get stagnated. Frequent rainfall is another requirement. Assam and West Bengal hills have such topographical features.
Around 80% of areas in the triangle formed by mountain areas of these two states is under tea plantation. Dibrugarh, Shivsagar, Lakhimpur, Kamrup and
Darang districts are mainly under tea plantation in Assam. In West Bengal,
Darjeeling, Jalpaigudi, Kuch Bihar etc. are main tea producing areas. Economically tea plantation is very important in both these states as their economy, especially of Assam, largely depend upon tea crop. It provides employment to rural poor labourers. It earns India foreign currency by export of tea. Darjeeling Tea sells at very high price. (Total 129 words)

(b) Discuss the distribution of winds and rainfall over India in the summer monsoon season.
Important Points for Answer: Summer Monsoon
Wind Origin
Distribution

Answer: During summer, difference of pressure and temperature created over the Indian landmass and the waterbody of Arabian Sea and the Indian
Ocean plays a role in deciding the distribution of wind and rainfall. South-West monsoon wind brings rain to Indian sub continent. Winds from the South-West, dividing at the southern tip of India, blow over landmass in May and June. This wind carry moisture and when obstructed by the Western Ghats, it give rainfall ranging from 200 to 400 cm. While going towards Rajasthan and Kutch, they hardly give 40 to 60 cm rainfall. In North-East and Eastern plateau about 150-300 cm and in the Himalayan about 100-200 cm rainfall come in this season. A branch of South-Western monsoon wind from East towards North bring rainfall in Tamil Nadu. (Total
135 words)

(c) Define the concept of ‘growth centres’ and evaluate its relevance in regional planning in India.
Important Points for Answer: Growth Centre Provisions
Relevance

Answer: Growth Centres are created in backward areas selected for industrialisation. Determinants to locate these growth centres are - population, area and industrial backwardness. They are provided with an assistance of Rs. 25-30 crore for their development. Government had decided to establish such Growth centres in backward areas in 1988. The plan to develop 70 growth centres was included in and implemented through the Eighth Five Year Plan. These were to be located at
Tehsil headquarters. They were aimed to attract various industries in such centres. They were, therefore, equipped with infrastructural facilities like power, water, transportation, banking, communication and so on. In regional planning, they can be used to promote growth and development, based on the nature of the locality, geographical and climatic conditions. At regional level, they can generate employments, produce goods and develop markets. (Total 136 words)

Q. 5 Write short notes on the following (about 20 words each): 5 × 2 = 10

(i) Name the main petroleum producing areas in India

Answer: Digboi and Surma Valley of Assam, Ankleshwar, Nawagam and Kalol of Gujarat. Barauni of Bihar and Bombay High in the Coast of
Maharashtra.

(ii) Jhum cultivation - process and consequences

Answer: It is practised for agricultural purpose over the land till it gets exhausted. Consequences are loss of fertility and environmental degradation.

(iii) Kaziranga National Park

Answer: Home to world’s two thirds of one horned rhinoceros, situated in Golaghat and Nagoan districts of Assam, is the UNESCO World Heritage Site.

(iv) Census definition of urban places

Answer: Every place which is either a Municipality or Corporation or Cantonment Board or an area with population above 5000, density above 400 persons per square km and above 75% of male working population engaged in non-agricultural activities.

(v) Khetri Copper Project

Answer: Hindustan Copper Ltd. operates Khetri Copper Project, a miningcum- metallurgical integrated project in Khetri region of Jhunjhunu district of Rajasthan.

Q. 6 Answer any one of the following (about 250 words): 30

(a) “The issue of a hung Parliament adversely affects the stability of Indian Government.” Discuss the statement and point out how far changing over to the Presidential form of government will be a solution to this problem.
Important Points for Answer:
Hung Parliament - meaning, causes Effect on stability Presidential system - suitability to India
Assessment

Answer: For last one and a half decade, in India, no party gains enough majority in Parliament to form the Government. Parties have to form alliances to form government in the situations of hung Parliament. Small parties, in alliances, demand their interests to be satisfied. In some cases, the Government falls and the country has to bear a huge burden of election expenses again. Then too, the country did not get a government of single party with absolute majority. This is the result of selfish and bargain politics and again it leads to the same in terms of alliances.
One option to Hung Parliament problem in India is the Presidential form of Government instead of Parliamentary form.
Reasons in favour of Presidential Form of Government:
Once the President is elected, he remains on the post for a fixed period, and the party politics does not affect stability of his government.
The President is vested with wide executive powers to take decisions and so differences of opinion in alliance does not prevent any effective step.
The country need not bear the expenses of election frequently.
An intelligent person on this key post can make many reforms to lead the country to growing development.
However, in Indian condition, it should also be taken into consideration that illiterate voters may not be able to choose one appropriate leader and such mistake may lead to persistent danger to the national interest for a quite long period. While in Parliamentary form, change is possible. Indian democracy is not as much developed as to run Presidential form of Government. (Total 262 words)

(b) Why does the Constitution of India provide different forms of Oaths for the President, the Ministers, the legislators and the members of the judiciary ? Discuss their significance.
Important Points for Answer:
Oath – provisions
Different Forms
Reasons

Answer: Functions and responsibilities of the President, the Ministers, the Legislators and the members of the Judiciary are specific and different from each other. Our Constitution requires a person to take an oath or affirmations before entering into office or taking over the responsibility.
Different authorities need to perform different functions or responsibilities and so the forms of oath are also different accordingly.
The President is the head of the state and all functions of the country are performed in his name. Moreover, being a part of Parliament and having ordinance making powers he also plays the role of a Legislator. Pardoning power in the field of Judiciary and Supreme command of the Armed forces in his hands, requires him to be faithful to the Constitution.
Article - 60 provides the form of oath or affirmation of the President. It requires him to preserve, protect and defend the Constitution and law at his best ability. Also, he is required to devote himself to the service and wellbeing of the people of India.
On the other hand, a minister belongs to political parties. Therefore, he is required, on an oath or affirmation, to discharge his duties without fear or favour, affection or ill-will.
The Legislators make laws of national or local importance. They need to discharge this duty faithfully on oath. Functions of the judicial members are to uphold the Constitution and law of the country. They are expected, by oath to discharge these duties without any fear or favour, affection or ill-will. (Total 253 words)

Q. 7 Answer any one of the following (about 250 words): 30

(a) What is the position of the Supreme Court under the Constitution of India? How far does it play its role as the guardian of the Constitution ?
Important Points for Answer: Supreme Court - Constitutional position Powers

A guardian

Answer: The Supreme Court of India is the highest Judicial body in the country. It is vested with the sole power of Constitutional interpretation. In the Indian Government system, it performs the function of federal court. It is vested with the original jurisdiction over the disputes arising between

(i) The Union of India and State/s.

(ii) The Union of India and State/s on one side and one or more states on the other side.

(iii) State/s and State/s. It keeps legislature in control by declaring acts ultra vires if they violate any Constitutional provisions or interfere in the field of others. Powers of Judicial review is an important arm in its hand to check the legislature encroachments.
Judicial Activism is a concept by which the Supreme Court has started to act constructively, rather than exercising mere passive and preventive control.
To fulfil the Constitutional obligation, it has now declared many directives as the Fundamental Rights and has made it mandatory for the state to protect and enforce them. It interpreted Article 19 and 21 very constructively and derived many other Fundamental Rights from them. In case of an attempt by the legislature to curtail the scope of the Fundamental Rights, the Supreme Court, has taken a moderate stand and upheld the legislature’s powers to amend the Fundamental Rights, but has not allowed it to destroy the basic structure of the Constitution.
The Supreme Court of India is vested with a great responsibility to protect, interpret and upheld the Constitution and it has performed it very effectively.

(Total 259 words)

(b) How is the Constitution of India amended? Do you think that the procedure for amendment makes the Constitution a play-thing in the hands of the Centre ?
Important Points for Answer:
Amendment procedure Flexibility
Rigidity
Assessment

Answer: Article 368 of the Constitution contains power as well as procedure of amendment, which is of three types as:

(i) Simple majority: Both Houses pass a bill by simple majority and then it is sent to the President, for his assent.

(ii) Special majority : Both Houses need to pass the bill by two-third majority of the members present and voting and by majority of the total number of members of that House.

(iii) Special majority plus ratification of states : After passing the bill by both Houses by special majority, it is also required to amend some provisions of the Constitution, that the bill must be ratified by not less than one half of the states.
The bill to amend Constitution may be introduced in any House of Parliament. There is no provision for joint sitting of both Houses for Constitutional amendment. The President after 24th Amendment cannot withhold his assent nor can he return it for reconsideration. By the 24th
Amendment 1971 the power of Parliament to amend the Constitution has been extended. It can amend any provision of the Constitution by way of addition, variation or repeal. In the case of Keshvanand Bharti 1973, the Supreme Court upheld validity of this amendment, but introduced “Basic Structure” theory and held that Parliament cannot amend the Constitution as to destroy its basic structure. By 42nd Amendment 1976, Parliament amended Article 368 to negate
Judicial review of the amendment. But in Minerva Mill Ltd Case 1980 it was held void and power of Judicial review is restored to the Supreme Court.
Due to tough procedure
– no provision for joint sitting
– Judicial review, and
– basic structure theory the Constitution has not become a plaything in the hands of the Centre. (Total
288 words)

Q. 8 Answer any two of the following (about 150 words each): 2 × 15
= 30

(a) Discuss the constitutional provisions relating to the non-justiciable directives binding upon the states.
Important Points for Answer:
Directive Principles
Non-Justiciable Implementation
DPSPs as Fundamental Rights

Answer: The Directives laid down in the Part IV of the Constitution are notjusticiable in court of law and are not binding upon the state. The state may, and have, made some Directives binding by amendment under Article 368, provided it does not violate the basic structure of the Constitution. By 25th Amendment Act 1971, Parliament, by inserting Article-31C in Part III provided that laws enacted to give effect to Articles-39 (b) and (c) can override the fundamental rights under Article 14 and 19. The Supreme Court has upheld this amendment.
The Supreme Court has uplifted some directives to the status of the fundamental rights and they are binding upon the State. These are ‘Right to Free Legal Aid’, ‘Free and Compulsory Education’, Protection of Children from Exploitation’, ‘Abolition of Child Labour’, ‘Equal Pay for Equal Work’,
‘Protection of Ecology and Environmental Pollution’ etc. All these Directives are binding upon the State. (Total 154 words)

(b) Describe the methods of delimiting constituencies for parliamentary elections in India.
Important Points for Answer: Constitutional provisions
Methods of delimitation Formation of Commission Power to delimit

Answer: Under Article 327, the Parliament has power to make provision with respect to all matters relating to elections, including the preparation of electoral rolls, the delimitation of Constituencies etc.
The Election Commission delimits the electoral constituencies in accordance with the law made by Parliament. The Indian Delimitation Commission Act
1952 makes provision for revision of the limitations of the electoral constituencies every ten years after the census. Every electoral constituency is a single electoral constituency.
The delimitation is made by the Commission consisting of the Chief Election Commissioner as its Chairman, and retired judges of the Supreme Court and the High courts as members of the Commission. It includes two to seven members from every state to assist in that state for delimitation. People can present their views and suggestions. After considering them, the Commission declares the limitations of the constituencies and this is the final declaration without any appeal. (Total 150 words)

(Note: Parliament had decided to follow the 1971 Census for the matters of electoral constituencies in elections until the Census of 2001 is published. But after 2001 Census, it decided to continue to follow the 1971 Census, in this regard, till 2006.)

(c) Explain the role of the Public Accounts Committee.
Important Points for Answer: Constitution of Committee Functions of Committee
Method Importance

Answer: The Public Accounts Committee (PAC) is the oldest of the three financial committees. It consists of 22 members of which 15 are from the Lok Sabha and 7 are from the Rajya Sabha. It has become convention that a member of opposition is appointed as its Chairman, since 1967.
This committee examines the accounts showing the expenditure of the Government from the sum granted by the Parliament. It examines whether the money appropriated was used for the purpose for which it was granted or not. If it finds out any administrative or policy misuse in the account, it will draw attention of Parliament towards it. It will also bring out any waste, corruption or inefficiency in the expenditure. It examines the audit reports of the Comptroller and Auditor General of India who assists the committee and participates in the meetings.
However, its findings are ex post facto, so, it can reveal only what has happened, but is investigations are taken very seriously by officials. (Total
164 words)

Q. 9 Answer the following (about 20 words each) : 5 × 2 = 10

(i) What is the import of the 84th Amendment of the Indian Constitution ?

Answer: The 84th Amendment 2001 is related to the delimitation of Constituencies and of Parliamentary seats. It provides Census of 1971 as the basis, instead of 2001.

(ii) Under what Article of the Constitution can the Union Government play its role in inter-state water disputes ?

Answer: Under Article-252 Parliament can adjudicate any dispute relating to any matter of, or in, any inter-state river or river-valley.

(iii) What is the role of the protem speaker ?

Answer: The role the protem speaker is to preside over the Lok Sabha for the oath and election of the new speaker. He holds the seat till the speaker is elected.

(iv) What is meant by the ‘lame-duck session’ of the legislature ?

Answer: Lame-duck session is the last session of existing body of legislature, when election is to be held in a short period, already announced, before dissolution of Parliament.

(v) What is meant by the ‘fringe areas’ in the sphere of local government in India?

Answer: The area included in the local administration of both Panchayat and district is called the Fringe areas in the sphere of local government.

Q. 10 Write on any one of the following (about 250 words): 30

(a) What is the composition of the Electoral College for the election of the President of the Indian Republic? How is the value of votes cast counted ?
Important Points for Answer: Electoral college
Method of Election
Value of Votes

Answer: The President is elected by the members of an electoral college consisting of the elected members of both the Houses of Parliament and the elected members of the Legislative Assemblies of States and the Union
Territories of Delhi and Pondicherry.
According to Article 55 of the Constitution, as for as practicable, there has to be uniformity in the scale of representation of the different states at the election of the President. For the purpose of securing such uniformity among the States, the number of votes to which each State is entitled is determined as follows:-
– Every elected member of the legislative assembly of a State shall have as many votes as there are multiples of one thousand in the quotient obtained by dividing the population of the state by the total number of elected members of the Assembly. If after taking the said multiples of one thousand, the remainder is not less than five hundred, then the vote of each member shall be further increased by one.
– Each elected member of either House of Parliament shall have such number of votes as may be obtained by dividing the total number of votes assigned to the members of the State Legislation Assemblies by the total number of elected members of both the House of Parliament fractions exceeding one-half being counted as one and & other fractions being disregarded.
The election of the President shall be held in accordance with the system of proportional representation by means of the single transferable vote and the voting shall be by secret ballot. (Total 258 words)

(b) Biotechnology boom may pave a golden path for India.” Discuss.
Important Points for Answer: Biotechnology - Concept
Applications
Uses in India

Answer: Biotechnology is emerging as very important field of science with massive development opportunities. It is an industrial use of life, i.e. microorganisms and other living cells of plants and animals to produce substances beneficial to people.
This technology is used in various fields like agriculture, animal husbandry, biosensors production, genetic engineering, genetic mapping, cloning, embryo transfer technology, medicine, food, fuel, fodder, environment, etc. In India, the main benefit that can be derived from the development of biotechnology is in the field of agriculture and animal husbandry. These areas support maximum of our population. We can have new improved varieties of seeds, drought and insect proof species of plants, more nutritious and productive crops with minimum requirements and short duration of time can lead Indian agriculture to new heights.
Animal husbandry with Biotechnological application can lead to new animals with more milk and meat, more off-springs and wool can be produced by genetic technology. Healthy animals and birds with more eggs and healthy meat can be derived. Cloning is also a possible field of biotechnology. Cloning of small animals have been made possible and even human cloning research are in progress. Cloning gives new springs with desirable qualities and therapeutic uses.
Medicines can be prepared with the use of biotechnology. For example, antibiotics and vaccines of various diseases are prepared using this technology. Embryo transfer technology and artificial insemination can be helpful in this direction. Food qualities can be improved through this technology. Bio pesticides and bio fertilisers, bio fuel and fodders path towards prosperous future. (Total 258 words)

Q. 11 Write on any two of the following (about 125 words each): 2 × 10 = 20

(a) What were the main strategic concerns of the Indonesian President Megawati Sukarnoputri during her recent visit to India ?
Important Points for Answer:
Details of the Visit
Discussion held Strategic importance

Answer: Recent visit of the Indonesian President Megawati Sukarnoputri in April, 2002 was of great importance for both countries not only for the bilateral relations but also in deciding strategic condition of the South-east Asia. She held comprehensive talks with Indian leaders on matters of energy, security and combating terrorism. They accepted a dire need to face the threat of terrorism jointly. In matters of energy agreement both countries concerned about the possibilities of laying pipe lines of natural gas from Indonesia to India through the Indian Ocean near the Andaman and Nicobar Island. India supported sovereign integrity of Indonesia and condemned militant activities near Indonesian energy centres and offered all supports to check them.
As both the countries occupy a strategic positions in the Indian Ocean and the South-East Asia, the visit acquires a great importance. (Total 138 words)

(b) What is ‘TRIFED’ ? What are its objectives ?
Important Points for Answer:
TRIFED - details
Objectives Functions

Answer: TRIFED is a Tribal Cooperative Marketing Development Federation.
TRIFED is run by the Central Government which aims at collecting and purchasing products of tribal people from the country and to sell in the country or to export them. To eradicate poverty in tribal areas, to provide them with economic security by aiding market facility and to uplift their level of life, are the main objectives of this institution apart from leading the country towards food security, social development and help in natural disasters. It helps them in times of natural disasters like drought, flood, cyclone or others. Volunteer groups are formed from the tribal areas and they are trained for basic help in such emergency times.
Thus, the Institute is working for social security and economic upliftment of tribal people and areas. (Total 132 words)

(c) How has the dwindling of barbed variety of rice affected the Siliguri - Bagdogra belt with respect to man-animal conflict ?
Important Points for Answer:
Rice variety
Man-Animal conflict
New variety

Answer: The conflict of man-animal has been reduced and now animals do get enough fodder. In the area of Siliguri-Bagdogra belt, there was practiced a barbed variety of rice which were less useful as the animal fodder. So animals had to go to jungles or savannas. The barbed verities which had earlier occupied the region had prevented the animals from their coveted fodder, rice husk wheat twigs etc. But the practice of new variety of bio-technologically developed rice have proven helpful in increasing fodder production for animals. Men can now profess animal husbandry along with agriculture and can have benefits of animals in agriculture, transportation and food production.
Apart from helping man-animal relations, this new genetically modified varieties of rice have reduced burden of animals upon the jungles and grassland making them greener again. (Total 137 words)

Q. 12 Write notes on any two of the following (about 125 words each) :
2 × 10 = 20

(a) What is Integrated Wastelands Development Programme ?
Important Points for Answer: IWDP
Main Objectives
Assessment

Answer: The IWDP, Integrated Wastelands Development Programme has been under implementation since 1989-90. It was a fully centre funded scheme till 1 April 2000. Now ratio between Centre and State fund is 92 : 8. It is now implemented on watershed development guidelines basis. It enhances people’s participation at all stages of the programme.
Objectives of this programme : development based on village or micro-watershed plans. generate employment in rural areas. development of wastelands into grasslands for fodder purposes and than for agriculture. prevent spread of wastelands. protection of environment, soil etc.
The programme covers 28 states, 297 districts with a total area under various stages of the project of 37.22 lakh hectare.
This programme has created many positive effects on wastelands and increased the area under grassland or agricultural land. Benefit of rural employment and income security for them is created. (Total 141 words)

(b) Write briefly about Desert Development Programme.
Important Points for Answer:
The Programme
Objectives
Assessment

Answer: The Desert Development Programme was started in 1977-78. The basic object of the programme is to minimise the adverse effect of drought and control desertification through rejuvenation of natural resource base of the identified desert areas. It is being implemented in both types of deserts i.e. hot and cold. It covers hot desert areas of Gujarat, Rajasthan and Haryana.
Under the cold desert area come Jammu and Kashmir and Himachal Pradesh. Its coverage has been increased to cover some districts of Andhra Pradesh and Karnataka.
The programme covers 234 blocks in 90 districts in India in seven states.
– To grow trees to prevent sand spread.
– To prepare grass-plains.
– To develop water resources.
The scheme is fully sponsored by the: Government of India. It covers a total area of about 33.56 lakh hectares. (Total 135 words)

(c) Write briefly about the Programmes for ‘Welfare of the Disabled’.
Important Points for Answer:
The Programme
Objectives
Assessment

Answer: Programme for the Welfare of persons with disabilities are under the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment. According to an estimate, there are five percent of population, in India, on an average, with some kind of disabilities.
A scheme to promote Voluntary Action for persons with disabilities provide assistance to NGOs working for the welfare of disabled. The Ministry also delivers or facilitates delivery of rehabilitation services, it gives support for vocational activities by disabled, income generating occupations, etc.
The Assistance to Disabled Persons (ADIP) is the scheme, which is fully sponsored by the Centre, to implement organisations or agencies for welfare of disabled.
Reservation for disabled in job opportunities, education, training institutes etc. are provided. Various governmental institutes are established to work in this direction, e.g. Artificial Limbs Manufacturing Corporation of India - in Kanpur. (Total 136 words)

Q. 13 Write about the following (about 20 words each): 5 × 2 = 10

(i) Prof. B. P. Sinha

Answer: He was a historian and archaeologist who played an important role in excavation of the Vikramshila University of the ancient time. He died recently.

(ii) Maj. Gen. S. S. Sharma

Answer: Maj Gen S S Sharma, a recipient of gallantry award Kirti Chakra for leading the first Indian Wintering expedition to Antarctica, was commissioned in the Bombay Sappers, in June 1965.

(iii) Kondapallj, Seetaramaiah

Answer: He is main leader of the People’s War Group of the Naxalites - an organisation that he established in Andhra Pradesh. He died recently of Parkinson’s disease.

(iv) Aung San Suu Kyi

Answer: She is a prominent figure protesting against the military rule in
Myanmar for the cause of democracy. She is kept in prison.

(v) Thalassery, Kerala

Answer: It is a town on the Malabar Coast in Kerala. It is referred as the city of 3-C, i.e. cricket, cakes and circuses.

 

2002 SOLVED PAPER II
Time Allowed: Three Hours Maximum Marks: 300 Candidates should attempt All questions strictly in accordance with the instructions given under each question.

 

Q. 1 Answer any TWO of the following (Answer to each question should be in about 150 words): 15x2= 30

(a) Discuss the major irritants in Indo-China relations and highlight the latest moves to overcome these.
Important Points for Answer: India - China relations Problematic issues Steps of solution Progress

Answer: India and China have major irritants in their relations, from historical times, related to borders and boundary issue. Both have disputed border of 1,25,000 square km. Some boundary issues are also hurdles. China claims a part of Arunachal Pradesh and does not recognise Sikkim as Indian territory, showing it as a separate nation over its website. While India does not consider Tibet a part of China, which China claims to be. These issues and illegal trades between two countries are major irritants. But in recent time, positive and constructive changes are there in this direction. Chinese President’s visit to India and Jaswant Singh’s China tour has influenced policy of each country. Both have decided to solve the problem of Line of Actual Control. Both nations agreed to fight terrorism with joint cooperation. In economic field, they cooperated and proposed to reconstitute joint economic group. Tourism and space cooperation issues also played a role in overcoming the irritants between India and China. (Total 161 words)

(b) How did U.S. respond to the problem of Cross-border terrorism in the State of Jammu and Kashmir after the Kaluchak events?
Important Points for Answer: Kaluchak event - detail
Response of US

Answer: Kaluchak is a place in Kashmir where a terrorist attack killed thirty four army soldiers of India in May 2002.. This attack by Laskar-e-Toiba terrorists is, in fact, a part of Pakistan supported terrorist activities. All the three terrorists killed in this incident were Pakistani nationals.
The President of the United States George W. Bush condemned the massacre as a “terrible and outrageous act” and said that he was “appalled at the incident”. America has also expressed discontent with Pakistan’s attitude.
Almost the whole world has expressed support to India’s fight against terrorism.
Arrival of Mr. Armitage after this incident in India, led to detailed discussion for the fight against terrorism and expression of America’s support.
America has praised India’s fight and assured to stand by in this fight. Both the countries have agreed to create a strong voice in all over the world against such cross border terrorism and to combine in such efforts. (Total 157 words)

(c) Account for India’s opposition to Comprehensive Test Ban treaty.
Important Points for Answer: CTBT - provisions India’s contention
Reasons

Answer: India opposes the Comprehensive Test Ban Treaty (CTBT) on the following grounds: It does not provide for the total disarmament of atomic or nuclear weapons. It has provisions to increase influence of the five nations with nuclear weapons by allowing them to retain.
Other developing countries are devoid from gaining nuclear power capacity under the treaty. It encourages computerised use and experiments of nuclear weapons.
This treaty does not put the work of inspection in any international organisation but in a nation, America, which India does not find a neutral provision. It is to bind other nations, like India from acquiring nuclear capacity and yet not removing nuclear capacity as a whole from the world. It does not propose a nuclear power free world and a time for that. Because of these impartialities of provision in this treaty, India has not signed and has opposed the Comprehensive Test Ban Treaty. (Total 150 words)

Q. 2 Answer the following (Answer to each question should be in about 20 words): 2 × 5 = 10

(a) Explain India’s stand on LTTE.

Answer: Indian Peace Keeping Force in Sri Lanka confronted with LTTE. India has always taken strict stand against LTTE in efforts for peace. LTTE suicide bomber killed PM Rajiv Gandhi.

(b) What does ‘Gujral doctrine’ stand for ?

Answer: Propounded by former Foreign Minister and Prime Minister I K Gujaral, the doctrine has five principles of India’s foreign policy to end contestations with neighbours and walk extra mile.

(c) How does India benefit from good neighbourly relations with Bangladesh ?

Answer: Hydrological power generation, flood control, control on terrorist activities and prevention of illegal infiltration are the main benefits of good neighbourly relations with Bangladesh.

(d) What do you know about ‘Pinaka’ ?

Answer: Pinaka is a multiple rocket launcher produced indigenously in India by DRDO for theIndian Army, having capability of 40 km range for Mark 1 and 75 km for Mark 2.

(e) Explain India’s ‘No First Use’ policy in context of Nuclear Weapons.

Answer: It means that India will use nuclear weapons only to counter a nuclear attack and not use them in first instance.

Q. 3 Answer the following (Answer to each question should be in about 20 words): 2 × 5 = 10

(a) What are the problems NRIs have to face if they decide to settle in India ?

Answer: Changed patterns of life and standard of living, difference of culture, social traditions, administration, customs and governance are the factors they have to set up with. They may face problems in such set up.

(b) What was India Millennium Deposit Scheme ?

Answer: The State Bank of India proposed this scheme to attract Indians abroad to invest foreign currency capital in India by offering attractive terms and benefits, to counter the depreciation of Indian rupee.

(c) What has been the impact of Gulf remittances on India’s economy ?

Answer: It has given India a huge amount of foreign currency. During the
90s it played a great role in India’s social and economic development.

(d) Name the nodal agency to deal with issues relating to Indians abroad and explain its main task.

Answer: Indian Embassy or Consulates under the Ministry of External Affairs is the nodal agency of Government of India and it assists Indians in any eventuality as well as all procedural issues.

(e) What is distinction between ‘Non Resident Indian’ and ‘People of India origin’ ?

Answer: NRIs are those who stay out of India for more than 182 days in a year or have not stayed 365 days in India in last four years. PIO, is that who had acquired Indian Passport anytime or either of his parents or grand parents is Indian and had been resident of unpartitioned India.

Q. 4 Answer any ONE of the following (Answer should be in about 250 words) :

(a) Outline the main targets fixed in the National Population Policy 2000.
What have been the follow up measures to this policy? 30
Important Points for Answer: Policy - provisions, targets Follow-up Measures

Answer: Indian Population Policy - 2000 adopts some clear objectives, strategic themes and operational strategies. Some socio-demographic goals are to be achieved by 2010 according to the policy. Policy aims to achieve stabilised population by 2045. To reduce Infant
Mortality Rate to 30 per one thousand live births. Mortality Rate is targeted to achieve at 100 per one lakh persons. It ensures that, according to its target,
100 percent delivery should be by trained doctors and 80 per cent institutional delivery is targeted. For the achievement of these objectives and goals, education is considered to be of much importance and necessity. The age of marriage of a girl is fixed at
18 years and for a boy is 21 years, minimum. Delivery and abortion centres are increased in numbers to prevent unwanted child births and ensure proper delivery for a healthy child.
To implement and follow the targeted policies various economic and other rewards are proposed. Follow up measures to ensure the policy implementation are:
To strengthen community, primary and sub-health centres. Integrated package of necessary health services to extend basic health services and child health at village and household levels are to be provided through mobile clinics and counselling services.
This policy convergences the Family Welfare Programmes necessary for this policy with related social services to make it people centred.
More important among all is that the policy sets up a National Commission on Population under the Chairmanship of the Prime
Minister to oversee the implementation of the National Population Policy. (Total 252 words)

(b) The main thrust of Export-Import Policy 2002 - 07 is on creating a framework for enhancing India’s export capability. In the light of this statement outline the salient features of EXIM Policy 2002-07. 30
Important Points for Answer: EXIM Policy 2002-07 – features Salient Features

Answer: The Export-Import Policy, 2002-07 aims at enhancing exports from India, both in terms of quantity and types.
To realise this objective, it has provided some special exemptions, liberalisation and policy benefits, to export oriented units. It has, to enhance agricultural exports from India, allowed export of crops. For this, the policy has abolished quantitative restrictions from every crop except onion and jute. Not only permission, but subsidy is being provided to export fruits, vegetables, milk products and some other selected goods. This was necessary for them to compete with the subsidised goods of agricultural production exported from the developed countries. The Government has established 20 Agricultural Export Zones for promotion of agricultural goods export. Besides these, provisions for Agricultural Export Promotion, some other changes are also introduced. With the abolition of ‘Duty Exemption Entitlement Certificate’, it was necessary and so introduced the scheme of “Advanced Licence” for exports. For African, Russian and Latin American exporters, “Export House” series is constituted. Units exporting goods of more than five crore rupees annually would be included in this series and provided with tax benefits and some policy liberalisations.
Handicrafts and cottage industries are also proposed duty exemptions if they account for exports of more than five crore rupees a year.
Mainly, Special Economic Zones (SEZ), constituted under the policy are hoped to promote exports from India and so are provided with facilities of
Reduced Cash Reserve Ratio, permission to get loan and investment from foreign investors, exemption from Central Sales tax etc.
This aims to increase India’s export by 12 percent and increase India’s share in the foreign trade to one percent from present 0.6 percent. (Total 275 words)

Q. 5 Answer any TWO of the following (Answer to each question should be in about 150 words): 15 × 2 = 30

(a) What are ‘Minimum Support Prices’ in agricultural products? What are their objectives?
Important Points for Answer:
MSP - meaning
Objectives

Answer: First time announced in 1965, the ”Minimum Support Prices”

(MSP) are those prices at which the Government is ready to purchase the production of crop from the farmers, in case of fall in market prices below the
MSP. Because of this assurance by the Government, the market prices never come down than the minimum support prices.
These prices are announced on the recommendations of Agriculture Cost and Price Commission (ACPC), by the Government with the objectives of

(i) Assure remunerative and relatively stable price environment for the farmers by inducing them to increase production and thereby augment the availability of food grains.

(ii) Improve economic access of food to people.

(iii) Evolve a production pattern which is in line with overall needs of the economy.
These Minimum Support Prices have given rise to the production of crops in our country leading, sometimes, to surplus of some particular crops and their export, contributing to our economy. (Total 155 words)

(b) Outline the main objectives and achievements of the policy of disinvestment in India.
Important Points for Answer:
Disinvestment
Main objectives Effects on economy Policy measures

Answer: The New Industrial Policy of 1991 has started plan for disinvestment. The Government has public sector undertakings in which massive investment is that of the Government. Some objectives of the disinvestment include to release government’s capital from PSUs and to divert them into social sectors which can raise standard of living of people. By disinvestment, to increase private sector participation and to create a competitive market by withdrawing government monopoly and regulations. Maximum distribution of wealth by shares distribution to wide base of public. And the most important among all is to reduce the Government’s expenditure. Due to implementation of this disinvestment policy, some benefits that have been achieved are that Government could raise twenty thousand crores of rupees by disinvestment of about fifty PSUs and this amount can be directed towards social sector for raising basic facilities like education, health, etc. Salaries of employees has been increased, quality is being improved due to competition and the Government expenditure is reduced to a portion. (Total 164 words)

(c) With what objectives was ‘Essential Commodities Act 1955’ amended last year?
Important Points for Answer:
Act - Main provisions
Amendment - objectives

Answer: The Essential Commodities Act 1955 imposes restrictions and regulations on trade and distribution of some commodities declared to be essential for human life. The list of items under the Act include drugs, fertilisers, pulses and edible oils, and petroleum and petroleum products. It was amended, the step known as ‘New Grain Policy’ to liberalise the regulations with objectives of : opening the market to make it competitive to protect the interests of farmers by increasing chances of earning higher profits. to make production reach to scarce areas. to increase investment of private sectors. to increase exports of production to foreign markets.
All these objectives behind the amendment are to be achieved through some positive provisions like elimination of License system. Wheat, rice, oil seeds, etc. can be stored and distributed now, as the regulating and restricting provisions have been removed. Behind all these, was the aim of encouraging free trade and its benefit to India. (Total 154 words)

Q. 6 Answer the following (Answer to each question should be in about
20 words): 2 × 15 = 30

(a) What is peak rate of Custom duty ? What are its objectives in India ?

Answer: The peak rate of Custom duty is the highest rate, currently 35 percent. Its main objectives are Revenue and Protection to home industries.

(b) Define fiscal deficit.

Answer: Fiscal Deficit is the excess of total expenditure over total receipts excluding borrowings and other liabilities. Fiscal Deficit = Budgetary Deficit + Borrowings and other liabilities.

(c) Explain the provision of OGL.

Answer: An Open General Licence (OGL) is a type of export licence issued by a government to its domestic suppliers. In most countries, they are the licences with minimal restrictions. It may be an import licence which facilitates free import without limitations.

(d) Elucidate ‘Special Economic Zones’.

Answer: They provides relaxation in tax and duties for the purpose of encouraging export and are considered foreign territory for the customs purpose.

(e) Highlight salient feature of ‘National Highway Development Project’.

Answer: It is a 14000 km long road project to join ports and important commercial cities, to boost trade and commerce through good transportation facilities.

(f) What is the role of SEBI ?

Answer: SEBI plays a role of regulating body which deals with all matters relating to development and regulation of Securities market and investor protection, also it advises the Government on all these matters.

(g) Explain RBI’s ‘Automatic route’ in FDIs.

Answer: No permission is required for foreign direct investment through this route. NBFCs, Non-Banking Finance Companies and SEZs - Special Economic Zones are parts of the RBI’s Automatic Route.

(h) With what objectives was ’Annapurna’ Scheme launched ?

Answer: Annapurna Scheme was launched in March 1999 to provide 10 kg food grains to those senior citizens who do not get pension. Later on, it was extended to cover those people also who get old age pensions.

(i) Elucidate ‘Sampoorna Gramin Rozgar Yojna’.

Answer: Aimed at providing employment to rural labours, food security and social and economic progress, this is a Central Government Scheme implemented from September, 2001.

(j) The Union Budget 2002-03 recommended some services to be taxed.
Name any 4 of these services.

Answer: Four services are: Life insurance.
Ware houses.
Health clubs.
Transportation of goods from ports in country.

(k) What is ‘dumping’?What is its objective ?

Answer: It is selling of goods and services at very low cost in foreign markets. Objectives are to destroy the market or industries and producers of that country or to exit the unnecessary production void of demand in home country.

(l) What do you understand by ‘Capital Account Convertibility’ of Rupee ?

Answer: Also known as Capital Assets Liberation, it is the ability to conduct transactions of local financial assets into foreign financial assets freely or at country determined exchange rates.

(m) Define Sex ratio in the population of India. What is its present status?

Answer: It is number of females in per 1000 population of male in the area. Presently, India’s sex ratio is 933, i.e. 933 females per 1000 males.

(n) Distinguish between ad-valorem and specific duties.

Answer: Ad-Valorem duty is based on value of goods or services, changing in rate with the price. Specific duty is fixed on Weight, Area etc.

(o) Define zero-based budget.

Answer: Zero-based budget recognises no base or minimum expenditure for any activity. It insists for the justification of each item of expenditure. So, all departments have to start from a scratch.

Q. 7 Answer any TWO of the following (Answer to each question should be in about 150 words): 15 × 2 = 30

(a) Highlight the main points of Nuclear Disarmament Treaty signed by U.S. President George Bush and Russian President Vladimir Putin in
May 2002.
Important Points for Answer:
Treaty - provisions Effect on world scenario

Answer: President Bush and President Putin signed the treaty in Moscow on
24 May 2002. The treaty’s main points are :
To increase cooperation in the field of missile testings.
To interchange informations regarding the missile defence programme.
Treaty will substantially reduce nuclear -- strategic nuclear warhead arsenals to the range of 1,700 to 2,200, the lowest level in decades. Both have emphasised the need of strategic and security cooperation. For purposes of implementing the Treaty, both countries will hold meetings at least twice a year of a Bilateral Implementation Commission.
This treaty liquidates the Cold War legacy of nuclear hostility between the two countries. The treaty is important for the world as the recent declaration of America’s Anti Missile Defence Project had alerted all nations and again a race of arms would have lead to second cold war between Russia and America.
The treaty will remain in force till 31 December 2012. This treaty will have effect to build up an environment of trust between them. (Total 164 words)

(b) Outline the features of latest Saudi Peace Plan for West Asia Crisis and assess its importance.
Important Points for Answer:

Plan - details

Crisis - solution

Success

 

Answer: West Asian crisis due to Israeli occupation of some areas of Palestine and other reasons have been attempted to be solved out by some nations frequently to maintain peace in the Asian continent. Recently Saudi
Arabia’s crown Prince Sheikh Abdullah bin Abdul Aziz presented plan to solve these disputes.
This is called the “Saudi Peace Plan”. This plan contains provisions that Israel should evacuate the occupations of West Bank area, Jerusalem and Golan mountain regions and recall its army from there, which are occupied since 1967. If Israel accepts the condition, as the plan goes ahead, it will be recognised by the Arab world establishing trade and diplomatic relations in time to come. Cordial relations will be possible, the plan says, and security of Israel will be respected by Arab nations. The plan, thus attempts to remove Israel from its occupation which is about 35 years old and, practically it seems impossible that Israel would recall its army so easily. (Total 160 words)

(c) “NAM (Non-Aligned Movement) is relevant in Unipolar World as well.” Comment.
Important Points for Answer:
NAM - policy, development
Unipolarisation
Relevance

Answer: Non-Aligned Movement came into existence not only to deviate pressures of two pole of the world at the time of Mid-twentieth century, but for the cause of removal of exploitation, influence and political interference in poor and under developed nations, by the super powers i.e., the USA and the USSR.
After the dissolution of USSR, only America has influenced the world, making it like a unipolar world. The objectives of NAM are counter acting against any influence as a United vote and force, for the cause of equality, economic development and removal of exploitation, this movement is continue in unipolar world also, making the concept that it was emerged as a third political pole, false from the very base.
Thus, NAM has truly acted for the cause of mankind and welfare of poor, underdeveloped and developing nations making them immune from empirical and influential social, political and economical hands of the developed and rich nations, equally against the only pole, now, America. (Total 165 words)

Q. 8 Answer the following (Answer to each question should be in about 20 words): 2 × 5 = 10
What do the following stand for?

(i) WCRA: World Conference Against Racism

(ii) SPDC: State Development Planning Commission

(iii) INTERPOL: International Police

(iv) WIPO: World Intellectual Property Organisation

(b) Why was Bander Seri Begawan in news recently ?

Answer: The ASEAN Regional Forum Conference was held in Bander Seri Begawan in September 2002 and so it was in news.

(c) Who is Xanana Gusmao ?

Answer: He is the first President and who was a leader of the freedom struggle of East Timor, a newly independent country.

(d) What do you mean by Uni-Polar World ?

Answer: A Uni-Polar World is a situation where all economic, political and strategic powers are concentrated in any single country. In present time, the USA has been such centre after the dissolution of the USSR.

(e) What do you know about North-South dialogue ?

Answer: North-South dialogues are proposed by the Branch Commission to hold talks for cooperation in development among North-South developed and developing countries.

Q. 9 Answer the following (Answer to each question should be in about 20 words): 2 × 5 = 10

(a) What do the following stand for?

(i) UNCHR: United Nations Commission for Human Rights

(ii) UNIDO: United Nations International Development Organisation

(iii) WTO: World Trade Organisation

(iv) MIGA: Multilateral Investment Guarantee Agency

(b) What is meant by AU ?

Answer: The African Union (AU) is a continental union consisting of all 55 countries on the African continent, extending slightly into Asia via the Sinai Peninsula in Egypt. It was established on 26 May 2001 in Addis Ababa, Ethiopia, and launched on 9 July 2002 in South Africa.

(c) Explain U.S. stand on the proposal for establishing an International Crime Court.

Answer: US is against the establishment of an International Crime Court and is not ready to accept it as a part of International Legal Machinery.

(d) What is the main purpose of G-15 ?

Answer: The main purpose of G-15 is to co-operate in economic development of members by promoting investment technology exchange and trade relations.

(e) Why is SAFTA being mooted ?

Answer: South Asian Free Trade Agreement (SAFTA) will promote trade relations among SAARC nations by economic liberalisations and freedom of trade. So, to develop co-operation in this field, SAFTA is being mooted.

Q. 10 Answer any ONE of the following (Answer should be in about 250 words):

(a) Plastic hazards - Discuss.
Important Points for Answer:
Meaning

Causes

Suggestions

 

Answer: Plastic is widely used in our day to day life. Starting from a pen to a polythene bag in which we carry fruits and books are forms of plastic.
Though convenient in our day to day use, it has posed an alarming threat to the environment.
Non biodegradable: Plastic is non-biodegradable and do not decay by biological actions of microbes. They remain in the same state as we throw them. So dumps or garbages are created making our cities and soil polluted.
Harmful Chemical:
To destroy plastics, we can either recycle or burn them. If we burn plastic, they emit harmful chemical gases like carbon dioxide (CO2), carbon monoxide (CO), nitrous oxide (NO), methane (CHJ, sulphur dioxides (SO2), etc. These gases pollute our environment, though in negligible content, they add to green house effect and endanger our environment.
Damage Sanitary System:
The wastes of plastic block pipes and sanitary lines so that dirty water came out on roads. This cause fear of malaria, cholera and other diseases.
Ocean Pollution:
The wastes of plastic bags, bottles, etc. are drawn to a sea or an ocean by rivers and they are deposited in them. They pollute and disturb the ecosystem of the sea or the ocean. Ecosystem Imbalance:
Due to wide scale use of plastic, water, soil and air pollutions are caused.
These polluted component of environment lead to imbalance of various ecosystem of the Earth. Solution:
– to reduce use of plastic wherever possible
– to use recyclable bags and things
– to recycle the used plastic
– not to throw used plastic here and there
– to collect the used plastic by the Government and then to recycle them (Total 276 words)

(b) Discuss in detail “The Internet Telephony as an alternative”. 30
Important Points for Answer: Internet telephony - technology, progress
Relevance Benefits Comparison as an alternative

Answer: Internet Telephony means talking facility through Internet connection between a computer and a computer or a computer and a telephone or two telephones. Earlier there were only telephones for voicetransfer technology of conversation but even simple telephone services now have internet connected personal computers using either the same telephone lines or higher speed DSL or cable connections.
This internet telephony can be availed with a suitable software installed in user’s PCs. Conversation between users can be carried either over a local network or between users anywhere on the world wide network. In local contacts, intercoms or local phones and in distant contacts long distance phone services are replaced by the Internet Telephony.
This Internet Telephony provides some obvious advantages like cost benefit. Charges of distance telephone calls are higher. Instead, most of the internet service users have local, toll free connections to their internet services providers and they have to pay a flat rate for internet services. Now, if they use internet telephony, they do not require to pay much additional charges apart from these expenses. They can avail a virtually free conversation over the Internet.
However, there is one disadvantage, if poor quality microphones are used, they would result into fidelity of the voice transmission, congestion in internet network may make voice choppy or interrupted.
One more limitation is that it can be used only if both the users have PCs.
Yet, comparatively internet telephony is a good quality service - cheap and easily available as an alternative to the telephones and their modes of communication. (Total 257 words)

Q. 11 Answer any TWO of the following (Answer to each question should be in about 150 words): 15 × 2 = 30

(a) What are the fundamental constants and their use in the measurement system ?
Important Points for Answer: Fundamental constants – example
Usefulness

Answer: A physical constant, sometimes referred as Fundamental constants are those values of various measurements which are constant and can be used as units of multiplications of value. For example, speed of light in vacuum is measures in meter per second unit. Its value is used as a unit of measuring some other distances. It is represented as (C) which values about 299792458 unit meter per second

(ms-1). Similarly, electric charge is measured in Coulumb unit, Planck’s constant etc. are other fundamental constants. Speed of light as a fundamental constant is used in measuring other quantities, as a unit of formula. For example, the formula of Einstine is E =
Amc2, where “E” is “produced energy”, “Am” is “change in mass”, “c” represents “speed of light” in vacuum. Thus, fundamental constants have facilitated measurement system and formulae by providing some units that can be used for various purposes and in many formulae. (Total 151 words)

(b) Discuss about ‘Environment’, its components and its awareness.
Important Points for Answer: Environment Components
Awareness

Answer: Environment is the sphere around us which include living and nonliving components, including physical, chemical and other natural forces. Living components include microbes, animals and vegetations. Non-living components consists of water, air, soil, rock, etc. Environment provides interaction and interdependency among all components. In balanced environment there is balance in various eco-systems. All species of life exploit the environmental resources or their existence and growth. But in last some decades, due to industrialisation and other activities of men, the environmental condition is degraded. Soil conservation is necessary to get maximum benefit from it. Water needs to be secured from pollutions.
Atmosphere gets polluted and dire need is there to save it. Only if limited use of natural resources is done, the fruits can be ripen for a long period.
To make the growth and existence of environment sustainable, man have to be aware enough to ‘save the environment.’ (Total 151 words)

(c) What is Human Cloning ? Is it dangerous or beneficial? Discuss.
Important Points for Answer: Cloning – technique

Benefits
Dangers

Conclusion

Answer: Human Cloning is creating a human baby in test-tube without use of sexual reproductive system. It is created using stem-cells taken from embryo of human which would be capable of being developed into a tissue, organ or a human. Human cloning can be used to produce a person from a cell by using scientific techniques.
As cloning can be helpful in curing many diseases, henceforth critical to cure. It can be utilised for therapeutic purposes and help mankind to get rid of
Heart diseases, diabetes, Alzaimer’s disease, cancer and so on. But if misused, it can be used to produce many human beings for using them in harmful purposes. A copy of any person can be cloned from a single stem cell derived from his body. It is feared that such use will destroy culture, race and ethics in mankind. On moral, ethical and social grounds it is rightly opposed due to fear of its misuse as other scientific inventions have been. (Total 164 words)

Q. 12 Answer the following (Answer to each question should be in about 20 words): 2 × 5 = 10

(a) What is a digital camera?

Answer: Digital Camera is a camera using an electronic sensor and memory system instead of a film to record images. Images can be transferred to a computer, internet or can be printed.

(b) What is firewall in Computer Language?

Answer: Firewall in Computer language is a security device to protect computer networks from external access. It keeps data secret and do not allow others to interfere or damage it.

(b) What is Multimedia?

Answer: Multimedia is a programme software of computer which uses simultaneously audio, video, virtual reality and telephony techniques as medium of expression.

(d) What do the following stand for ?

(i) HTML

(ii) FTP

(iii) MELOPS

(iv) PLANIT
Answer:

(i) HTML : Hyper Text Markup Language

(ii) FTP : File Transfer Protocol

(iii) MELOPS : Million Floating Points Option Per Second

(iv) PLANIT :

(e) What is Piracy ?

Answer: Copy of any original version of programme, without authority or permission of the owner of copyright, being sold in black market illegally is called Piracy.