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Intermediate – requires understanding of BoP structure, data interpretation, and interlinkages with fiscal and monetary policy; frequent in UPSC but rarely tested in isolation.
Trap: Current Account Deficit implies economic weakness – Fact: CAD can be growth-financing if funded by FDI (e.g., India’s 2004–2008 growth with CAD up to 3.5% of GDP). Trap: FPI is part of Capital Account – Fact: FPI is recorded under Financial Account; Capital Account in BoP includes only capital transfers and non-financial asset transactions (IMF BPM6). Trap: Devaluation happened in 1991 – Fact: India moved to de facto devaluation in 1966 (?4.76 to ?7.50); 1991 involved two-step depreciation under LERMS, not formal devaluation. Trap: REER appreciation always helps exports – Fact: REER appreciation (e.g., India’s 120 in 2023) makes exports costlier, hurting competitiveness unless offset by productivity gains.
Question: Which of the following components are correctly matched with their Balance of Payments account?1. Foreign Direct Investment – Financial Account2. Remittances – Current Account3. External Commercial Borrowings – Capital Account A) 1 and 2 only B) 2 and 3 only C) 1 and 3 only D) 1, 2 and 3 Answer: A Explanation: FDI and remittances are in Financial and Current Accounts respectively; ECBs are under Financial Account, not Capital Account (IMF BPM6). Why others fail: Option D is tempting because ECBs are capital inflows, but technically recorded under Financial Account.
Question: Consider the following statements about India’s exchange rate policy:1. The Reserve Bank of India follows a pure floating exchange rate system.2. The Nominal Effective Exchange Rate (NEER) is adjusted for inflation differentials.3. Depreciation of the rupee makes imports costlier. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? A) 1 and 2 only B) 3 only C) 1 and 3 only D) 2 and 3 only Answer: B Explanation: RBI follows a managed float, not pure float; NEER is not inflation-adjusted (REER is); depreciation increases import costs. Why others fail: Option D is tempting due to confusion between NEER and REER.
Question: In the context of Balance of Payments, “Current Account Deficit” is best described as: A) Excess of imports of goods over exports of goods B) Excess of outflows on current account over inflows C) Accumulation of foreign exchange reserves by the central bank D) Net borrowing from international financial institutions Answer: B Explanation: CAD occurs when total current account outflows (imports, remittances, income payments) exceed inflows (exports, remittances received, income receipts). Why others fail: Option A describes trade deficit, a subset of CAD.
Question: Which of the following was a key feature of India’s external sector crisis in 1991? A) High fiscal surplus and low foreign investment B) Forex reserves sufficient for six months of imports C) External debt exceeding 100% of GDP D) Severe shortage of foreign exchange reserves Answer: D Explanation: Forex reserves dropped to $1.2 billion, covering only three weeks of imports, triggering the 1991 crisis. Why others fail: Option C is incorrect – external debt was around 25% of GDP in 1991.
Question: The Real Effective Exchange Rate (REER) of a country is most useful for assessing: A) Short-term speculative capital flows B) Competitiveness of exports in global markets C) Level of foreign direct investment D) Size of the current account deficit Answer: B Explanation: REER adjusts nominal rates for inflation, indicating real cost of exports; higher REER implies reduced export competitiveness. Why others fail: Option D is tempting because exchange rates affect CAD, but REER specifically measures price competitiveness.
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