2010 General Studies Solved Paper I, Paper II

2010 SOLVED PAPER I
Time Allowed: Three Hours Maximum Marks: 300

Candidates should attempt ALL questions strictly in accordance with the instructions given under each question. The number of marks carried by each question is indicated at the end of the question.

 

Q. 1 Answer the following (in about 250 words for each answer): 20 × 2 = 40

(a) “Disputes between the- riparian states on sharing of river waters in post- Independence India are becoming increasingly complex.”
Objectively analyse the major disputes in this connection, with special reference to the Southern States.
Important Points for Answer:
Reason for Disputes
Main Disputes
Analyses Complexity

Answer: India is divided into 28 states and 7 union territories for administrative purpose. This divisions do not resemble geographical boundaries. Therefore, it happens that a river originates in one state, flows through one or more other states and then its mouth is in yet another state. So, disputes arise regarding water sharing of such inter - state rivers. In northern India, there are 16 river basins and in Southern India, there are 14 river basins.
We can take cases of Krishna - Godavari river basin and Cauveri Dispute for our analysis.
One reason for such disputes is that sharing agreements are based on old datas and parameters. With time, water quantity and requirements have undergone a drastic change. So, it gives rise to dispute.
Again, in South India, main cultivation is paddy. So, every state requires more water, being the need of crop. Cauvery dispute has its own Tribunal but no proper conclusion has yet arrived at. Dispute remains between Karnataka and Tamil Nadu. Between Kerala and Tamil Nadu, there is a dispute over Mullaperiyar dam height. It is a historic earthern dam built by British government in agreement with Tranvancore state.
On river Krishna, dispute remains between Andhra Pradesh and Karnataka states. Godavari gives rise to a dispute between Maharashtra and Andhra Pradesh.
All these disputes, now have not remained only water - based. They have their socio - economic effects. Political movements have taken their pace on the basis of these disputes. Earlier society was mainly rural and agricultural, now urbanisation and industrialisation have also increased demand of water, blowing air to the fire.

(b) Critically examine the differing estimates for (i) poverty figures, and

(ii) GDP growth data for April - June 2010, that have been in the news recently. In your view, what estimates are more reflective of the ground reality, and why?
Important Points for Answer: Poverty Measurement GDP Data
Different figures
Analysis

Answer: In India (and also in the world) there are different criteria for measuring poverty.
We have four different figures for poverty in India, based on different criteria. According to Planning Commission, poverty is 28 per cent. N. C. Saxena Committee reported poverty at about 50 per cent. Recently Suresh Tendulkar Committee reported poverty at 37.2 per cent but in the estimates of the National Commission for Enterprises in the Unorganised Sector

(NCEUS), poverty may be around 80 per cent in India.
These differences occurred due to different measures used by them. Again figure also represent how strict or Liberal parameters were used in figuring out poverty.
Recently, estimation of GDP growth rate of India for the first quarter of 2010-11 i.e. April - June 2010 was published. According to the data, real GDP growth at factor cost is estimated at 8.8% while it was indicated at

3.65% at market price. However within a day government has raised the economic growth at market price to 10.02% from 3.65% stated earlier.
Many statistical institutions provide their data of GDP growth and they are varying to some extent. But we can say that for the purpose of GDP growth
RBI data shows more ground reality because it has to come out with liquidity and monetary measures. Similarly, Planning Commission’s data on poverty can be relied upon.

Q. 2 Answer any TWO of the following in about 150 words each : 12 × 2 = 24

(a) Dalhousie’s predecessors had acted on the general principles of avoiding annexations, if these could be avoided. Dalhousie acted on the principles of annexation, if he could do so legitimately. His annexations were both of war and peace.” Analyse.
Important Points for Answer: Predecessors Policies
Dalhousie - his policy
Annexations by Dalhousie

Answer: Before the policy of “Subsidiary Alliance” by the Wellesley, the British was concentrated mainly on the gains and resources in India. Cornwallis, the predecessor of Wellesley, wanted to gain the anger of Indian major powers.
The “Subsidiary alliance” system was used by Wellesley to bring the Indian states within the orbit of the British political power. The system played a very important role in the expansion of the company’s dominions.
This policy was accepted by Nizam of Hyderabad, the ruler of Mysore, Raja of Tanjore, the Nawab of Awadh, the Peshwa, Scindia, etc.
During Dalhousie’s period, the annexation policy was more aggressive. He acted very firmly from the beginning to extend the British rule as much as possible in India. He implemented the policy named “Doctrine of Lapse”.
According to the doctrine, any princely state or territory under the direct influence of the British East India Company, as a vassal state under the British Subsidiary System would automatically be annexed if the ruler was either “manifestly incompetent or died without in a direct - heir”. By using this policy they look over the princely states of Satara (1848),
Jaipur and Sambalpur (1849), Nagpur and Jhansi (1854). Dalhousie also annexed Punjab, Burma and Sikkim by direct wars.
Thus, predecessors of Dalhousie were more peaceful in their policy while
Dalhousie became more aggressive in expansion of British Raj in India.

(b) With respect to Cooperative Societies what are the salient features of the 106th and 111th Constitutional Amendment Bills as at present?
Important Points for Answer:
106th Amendment
111th Amendment
Their main provisions

Answer: The Constitution (106th Amendment) Bill proposed to insert a new part IX B in the Constitution and adding Articles 243ZH through 243ZT providing for incorporation, regulation and winding up of co-operative societies.

1. The bill specified maximum number of Board members and the tenure of the members.

2. The bill also specified for elections to be held before the expiry of the term of the Board.

3. The bill specified that the Board of a co-operative society that has government shareholding or loans can be superseded for the maximum period of six months.
The Constitution (One Hundred and Eleventh Amendment) Bill, 2009 was introduced in the Lok Sabha on November 30, 2009. Background:
The Bill adds a new Directive Principles of State Policy stating that the
“State shall endeavour to promote voluntary formation, autonomous functioning, democratic control and professional management of cooperative societies.” It further inserts a new part IX B in the Constitution (adding Articles
243ZH through 243ZT), which outlines certain guidelines for running co
- operative societies.

(c) “ Small - holder farms need to be strengthened to achieve national food security.” Do you agree with this assessment? Substantiate.
Important Points for Answer: Small Holdings
Measures needed Importance in agriculture
Answer:The National Food Security Bill - 2010 has been passed in the parliament with the object to ensure the food security to every citizen in the country. For this purpose, we have to strengthen every aspect in the field of agriculture. Small holder farmers are those who own or cultivate less than 2.0 hectares of land in the marginal and submarginal farm households.
According to agricultural census of 1990-91, 33% of the total cultivated land in India is small farms and it contributes 41% of the National grain production. Besides these, the families of the small holder’s constitute more than half of the national population. Strengthening of small holder farms is important for two reasons :

(i) For their high contribution in agricultural output due to high levels of productivity as compared to large farms.

(ii) For its role in alleviating poverty across the nation, as majority of the poor still depend on it for their life.
The Government should be committed to implement various schemes and provide and educate the agricultural people about new technologies, encourage them to use various hybrid and high yielding immune seeds to increase the production and to facilitate for the effective market management to sell their products.

Q. 3 Answer any TWO of the following in about 150 words each: 12 × 2 = 24

(a) Comment on the spatial components in urban solid waste management in the country.
Important Points for Answer:
Rules
Responsibility & Authority
Applicability

Answer: The Municipal Solid Wastes (Management and Handling) Rules,

2000.
Applicability:- Apply to all municipal authorities responsible for collection, segregation, storage, transportation processing and disposal of municipal solid wastes.
Responsibility of Municipal Authority:

1. Every municipal authority shall, within the territorial area of the municipality, be responsible for the implementation of the provisions of these rules, and for any infrastructure development for collection, storage, segregation, transportation, processing and disposal of municipal solid wastes.

2. The municipal authority or an operator of a facility shall make an application for grant of authorisation for setting up waste processing and disposal facility including landfills from the State Board or the Committee in order to comply with the implementation programme.

3. The municipal authority shall furnish its annual report.

(a) to the Secretary-in-charge of the Department of Urban Development of the concerned State or as the case may be of the Union Territory, in case of a metropolitan city; or

(b) to the District Magistrate or the Deputy Commissioner concerned in case of all other town and cities, with a copy to the State Board or the Committee on or before the 30th day of June every year.

(b) Assess the contributions made by the Indian Council of Agricultural Research (ICAR) in agricultural development.
Important Points for Answer: ICAR Its Contribution

Answer: The Indian Council of Agricultural Research (ICAR) is the apex body for co-ordinating, guiding and managing research and education in agriculture including horticulture, fisheries and animal sciences in the entire country. With 97 ICAR institutes and 45 agricultural universities spread across the country this is one of the largest national agricultural systems in the world.
The ICAR has played a pioneering role in ushering Green Revolution and subsequent developments in agriculture in India through its research and technology development that has enabled the country to increase the production of foodgrains by 4 times, horticultural crops by 6 times, fish by 9 times (marine 5 times and inland 17 times), milk 6 times and eggs 27 times since 1950-51, thus making a visible impact on the national food and nutritional security. It has played a major role in promoting excellence in higher education in agriculture. It is engaged in cutting edge areas of science and technology development and its scientists are internationally acknowledged in their fields.

(c) List the significant local storms of the hot-weather season in the country and bring out their socio-economic impact.
Important Points for Answer: Conditions Local storms
Their impact Complexity

Answer: From March to May the ‘belt of great heat’ changes from south to north, due to the seeming northward motion of the sun. Deccan Plateau records the highest day temperatures in March. They are approximately around 38 °C. In April, the heat belt travels further north towards Gujarat and Madhya Pradesh, where they roughly record around 42 °C to 43 °C. In May, the heat belt moves further north. In the north-western part of the country temperatures close to 48 °C are not exceptional. In the centre of the low pressure trough in the north-west, dry and hot winds blow during the afternoon and frequently they remain even up till midnight.
These hot and dry day winds are locally known as ‘loo’.
At times, the moisture - laden winds are drawn towards the fringe of the trough. An abrupt contact between dry and moist air-masses gives rise to local storms of immense strength. These local storms are connected with brutal winds, uncontrolled downpour and even hail storms.
Towards the closing of summer, pre - monsoon showers are a frequent occurrence in Kerala and coastal areas of Karnataka. Locally they are known as ‘mango’ showers, because they aid in the early ripening of mangoes. Entry of pre-monsoon showers and early advancement of monsoons further north, is arrested by a belt of comparatively high air pressure, lying over the Deccan plateau.
The horrendous north-westerly and northerly winds in Bengal and Assam also cause very precipitate downpours. They are fundamentally evening thunder storms. Their unfavoured nature can be understood from the local terminology of ‘Kalbaisakhi’-‘calamity of the month of Baisakh’.

Q. 4 Answer any TWO of the following in about 150 words each: 2 × 2 = 24

(a) What are the grounds of disqualification of a Member of Parliament from either House? Quote relevant provisions in your answer.
Important Points for Answer: Grounds provided in :
Article -102,
Anti-Defection Law,
Representation of Peoples Act

Answer: Article 102: Disqualifications for membership

(1) A person shall be disqualified for being chosen as, and for being, a member of either House of Parliament

(a) if he holds any office of profit under the Government of India or the Government of any State, other than an office declared by Parliament by law not to disqualify its holder;

(b) if he is of unsound mind and stands so declared by a competent court;

(c) if he is an undischarged insolvent;

(d) if he is not a citizen of India, or has voluntarily acquired the citizenship of a foreign State, or is under any acknowledgement of allegiance or adherence to a foreign State;

(e) if he is so disqualified by or under any law made by Parliament Explanation; for the purposes of this clause a person shall not be deemed to hold an office of profit under the Government of India or the Government of any State by reason only that he is a
Minister either for the Union or for such State.

(2) A person shall be disqualified for being a member of either
House of Parliament if he is so disqualified under the Tenth Schedule
The grounds for disqualification under the Anti-Defection Law (Tenth Schedule)

(a) If an elected member voluntarily gives up his membership of a political party;

(b) If he votes or abstains from voting in such House contrary to any direction issued by his political party or anyone authorised to do so, without obtaining prior permission.
Disqualifications for membership of Parliament under provisions of The Representation of People Act 1951:
Disqualification on conviction for certain offences.
Disqualification on ground of corrupt practices.
Disqualification for dismissal for corruption or disloyalty.
Disqualification for Government contracts, etc.
Disqualification for office under Government company.
Disqualification for failure to lodge account of election expenses.

(b) Distinguish between the objectives, structure and functioning of the ‘Kendriya Vidyalaya Sangathan’ and the ‘Navodaya Vidyalaya Samiti’
Important Points for Answer:
Objectives
Distinctions

Answer: Kendriya Vidyalaya is a system of central government schools under the Ministry of Human Resource Development.
The system came into being in 1965 under the name “Central Schools” and has been affiliated with CBSE since then. Later, the name was changed to Kendriya Vidyalaya.
Objectives of Kendriya Vidyalaya Sangathan:

1. To cater to the educational needs of children of transferable Central Government including Defence and’ Para-military personnel by providing a common programme of education;

2. To pursue excellence and set the pace in the field of school education;

3. To initiate and promote experimentation and innovations in education in collaboration with other bodies like the Central Board of Secondary Education (CBSE) and the National Council of Educational Research and Training (NCERT) etc. and

4. To develop the spirit of national integration and create a sense of “Indianness” among children.
Navodaya Vidyalaya Samiti is an autonomous organisation under the Ministry of Human Resource Development, Department of Secondary & Higher Education, Govt. of India. The Chairman of the Samiti is the Hon’ble
Minister of Human Resource Development. First established in 1985 at Amravati, Maharashtra. They started with the name Navodaya Vidyalayas and renamed later as Jawahar Navodaya Vidyalayas in the birth-centenary year of Pandit Jawahar Lal Nehru.
Navodaya Vidyalayas are affiliated to Central Board of Secondary Education

(CBSE).
Objectives of Navodaya Vidyalaya Samiti to provide good quality modern education to the talented children predominantly from the rural areas, without regard to their family’s socio-economic condition. to ensure that all students of Jawahar Navodaya Vidyalayas attain a reasonable level of competence in three languages as envisaged in the Three Language Formula. to serve, in each district, as focal points for improvements in quality of school education in general through sharing of experiences and facilities.

(c) Bring out the salient features of the evolution and the current status of the ‘Bharat Stage’ vehicle emission norms in the country.
Important Points for Answer: Emission Regulations Evolution in India Fuel Policy

Answer: The first Indian emission regulations were idle emission limits which became effective in 1989. Since the year 2000, India started adopting European emission and fuel regulations for four - wheeled light - duty and for heavy - duty. Indian own emission regulations still apply to two - and three - wheeled vehicles.
On October 6, 2003, the National Auto Fuel Policy has been announced, which envisages a phased program for introducing Euro 2-4 emission and fuel regulations by 2010.
These standards apply to all new 4 - wheel vehicles sold and registered in the respective regions. In addition, the National Auto Fuel Policy introduces certain emission requirements for interstate buses with routes originating or terminating in Delhi or the other 10 cities. For 2 - and 3 - wheelers, Bharat Stage II (Euro 2) will be applicable from
April 1, 2005 and Stage III (Euro 3) standards would come in force preferably from April 1, 2008, but not later than April 1, 2010.

Q. 5 Write brief but precise notes on any SIX of the following. Your answer should not exceed 50 words in each case.5 × 6 = 30

(a) Transhumance in India

(b) Frontogenesis and Frontolysis

(c) Golden Revolution

(d) Sea-floor spreading

(e) Legislative powers assigned to the Rajya Sabha under Art. 249 and Art. 312 of the Constitution

(f) Causes for dominant dendritic pattern of drainage in the Gangetic plains

(g) “ Break-of-bulk” towns

Answer: (a) Transhumance means seasonal movement of people along with their livestock. They move for livelihood purpose, generally over a short distance. Siwalik, Ladakh and Nilgiris still follow the practice. It supports pasture needs.
They may also undertake Zhoom cultivation as an occupation. They collect forest products and sell them. Now transhumance is declining.

(b) Both terms refer to atmospheric conditions created by front. Frontogenesis, in meteorology, refers to the formation or strengthening of an atmospheric front. During frontogenesis, the temperature gradient tightens and as a result the thermal wind becomes imbalanced. Frontolysis - in meteorology, is the dissipation or weakening of an atmospheric front.

(c) Golden Revolution is related to increased production of fruits and vegetables. Share of horticulture in GDP of agriculture is now more than 30
% in India.
Research and promotion of this sector has increased income of farmers. It promises a potential to increase per-capita income of farmers in rural areas. It can also be promoted in environmental friendly manner.

(d) Seafloor spreading is a process that occurs at mid-ocean ridges, where new oceanic crust is formed through volcanic activity and then gradually moves away from the ridge. Seafloor spreading helps explain continental drift in the theory of plate tectonics. Sea floor spreading, if it continues to the point that the continent is completely severed, then a new ocean basin is created.

(e) Under Article 249 Rajya Sabha can empower Parliament to enact a law on any matter of state list. It has to pass a resolution that such enactment is necessary in national interest.
Under Article 312 Rajya Sabha has power to create a new category of All India Service by a resolution.

(f) Almost all river channel of Gangetic plain follow the slope of terrain i.e. west to east. This is one reason for dendritic pattern of drainage.
Monotonous character of the vast alluvial plain help river to easily make its course in the direction of the slope. This is another reason for the same.

(g) Break of bulk town is a place where goods are unloaded, i.e. ports. Town situated in middle of hills may also act as a break of bulk town due to their location, i.e. Dehradun. Similarly, cargo ports are break of bulk towns. The port may handle any particular type of cargo or various cargo - types. Bharuch in Gujarat was a break of bulk town in ancient India.

Q. 6 Answer any THREE of the following in about 150 words each: 12 × 3 = 36

(a) While bringing out their salient features, distinguish between either
‘Madhubani’ Art and ‘Manjusha’ Art or ‘Rajasthani’ schools of painting and the ‘Pahari’ school of Painting.
Important Points for Answer: Salient Features of all forms of schools

Answer: Madhubai Art: The art of painting initially practised in Mithila region of Bihar state. It is antique art of painting. It is said that this art originated at the time of king Janak.
Traditionally done by women of villages around present town of Madhubani. Initially it was done on plastered mud wall of huts. But now also done on clothes and handmade papers and canvass. Colours are derived from plants, themes generally revolves around hindu deities, natural object and Tulsi.
Manjusha Art or Angika Art: Traditional and indegenous art form of Bihar, used in Bihar Vishnavi Puja, usually referred as a snake printings only left part of the painting is painted. Pink, yellow and green colours are used. Human being depicted in the form of english letter X.
Rajasthani Schools of Painting: It developed in 15th century. Also called as Rajput or Hindu school of painting. In the beginning, the style was inspired by religion, mostly Hindu Vaishnav religion. In later stage, paintings were done on romance and great folk themes. Bright colours were used. Faminian beauty like lotus eyes, waving hairs, thin waist rounded and long fingers and graced is portrayed.
Main schools of this art: Mewar school, Kishangarh school, Bikaner school, Bundi school, Jaipur school. Pahari School of Painting: It developed and flourished during 17th to 19th century in the foothill of Punjab, Himachal Pradesh, Jammu and Garhwal. Painters are great lover of nature and depicts nature with care. Its main centeres are Basholi, Kangra and Gular. In Basholi portration of simplified forms of trees and faces is used with bold lines and brilliant colors. In Gular, women in the absence of their love is depicted. Kangra rather advanced includes towns, cluster of houses in the distance.
This art dwelt largely on the themes and symbols from literature and mythology.
Main schools are Kangra and Dagra.

(b) Bring out the powers and responsibilities attached to the office of the Speaker of the Lok Sabha.
Important Points for Answer: Position Power / Function

Answer: The Speaker is the presiding officer of the lower house of Parliament of India.
His/her role is similar to that of Speakers elsewhere in other countries that use the Westminster system of government.
The Speaker presides over the sessions of the Lok Sabha and conducts the business in the house.
He/she decides whether a bill is a money bill or a non money bill.
He/she maintains discipline and decorum in the house and can punish a member for their unruly behaviour by suspending them.
He/she permits the moving of various kinds of motions and resolutions like the motion of no confidence, motion of adjournment, motion of censure and calling attention notice as per the rules.
The Speaker decides on the agenda to be taken up for discussion during the meeting. The date of election of speaker is fixed by the President.

(c) Distinguish between the following four literary awards:

(i) Jnanpith Award (ii) Sahitya Akademi Award

(iii) Vyas Samman (iv) Saraswati Summan
Important Points for Answer: Four Awards Foundation and other criteria

Answer: The Jnanpith Award is the highest literary award in India. It is presented by the Bharatiya Jnanpith, a trust founded by the Sahu Jain family, the publishers of The Times of India newspaper. Sahitya Akademi Award is a literary honour in India which Sahitya
Akademi, India’s National Academy of Letters, annually confers on writers of outstanding works in one of the twenty - four major Indian languages.
The Vyas Samman is a literary award in India, first awarded in 1991. It is awarded annually by the K.K. Birla Foundation and includes a cash payout of Rs 2.5 lakh (as of 2005).
To be eligible for the award, the literary work must be in the Hindi language and have been published in the past 10 years.
The Saraswati Samman is an annual award for outstanding prose or poetry literary works in any Indian language. It is named after an Indian goddess of learning and is considered to be among the highest literary awards in India. It includes a monetary award of Rs five lakh (as of 2006). The Saraswati Samman was instituted in 1991 by the K. K. Birla Foundation.

(d) After the September 1st changes, do you think that Unit Linked Insurance Plans (ULIPs) and Mutual Funds (MFs) are on a level playing field? Substantiate your answer from the perspective of an ordinary investor.
Important Points for Answer:
ULIP
MF
Difference Problem
Recent decision

Answer: Investment in ULIPS or MFs result to the turf war between IRDA and SEBI. ULIPs are Unit Linked Insurance Plans and MFs are Mutual Funds or purely invested in equity.
ULIPs are combination of insurance and investment. In ULIPs, less than 5% of the premium for insurance and other used for buying equity, making it more or less a conventional MF. Since MF money is equity investment, so lot of regulatory structures were built into it. This provided for a natural inclination of financial regulatory arbitrage to favour
ULIPs over MFs. Preference to ULIPs affected MFs market. Ordinary investors in the name of insurance cover was getting into uninformed investment territory of equity market. So there was a lot of churning in the MF domain. And this was being missold to a symmetrically interested investor on the pretext of handsome return as this lead to a regulatory dispute between IRDA and SEBI. Post to the 1st September decision, the scenario was become clear.
Now lock - in period for all ULIPs has been increased from 3 yrs to 5 yrs making them long term financial instrument which basically provide risk protection.
Now IRDA has been restored with the regulatory position of ULIPs, thus clarifying to the market that it is insurance product where maximum portion of the premium should be allocated to the insurance coverage, this has reduced the regulatory arbitrage between both these products thus giving them level playing field.

Q. 7 Answer any FIVE of the following in about 150 words each: 12 ×
5 = 60

(a) What do you understand by ‘repo rate’ and ‘reverse repo rate’?
What are theimplications in raising these rates?
Important Points for Answer:
Repo rate
Reverse repo rate Effect of raise
Use by RBI

Answer: When banks have any shortage of funds, they can borrow it from
Reserve Bank of India or from other banks. The rate at which the RBI lends money to commercial banks is called repo rate, a short term for repurchase agreement. A reduction in the repo rate will help banks to get money at a cheaper rate. When the repo rate increases borrowing from RBI becomes more expensive.
Reverse Repo rate is the rate at which Reserve Bank of India (RBI) borrows money from banks. Banks are always happy to lend money to RBI since their money is in safe hands with a good interest. An increase in Reverse repo rate can cause the banks to transfer more funds to RBI due to these attractive interest rates. It can cause the money to be drawn out of the banking system.
Due to this fine tuning of RBI using its tools of CRR, Bank Rate, Repo Rate and Reverse Repo rate our banks adjust their lending or investment rates for common man.

(b) “Cost - benefit analysis should not be the sole consideration, while deciding to host events like the Commonwealth Games.” Critically comment on this perspective.
Important Points for Answer: Important of Games Its measurements - Monetary, others
Measures of analysis

Answer: Hosting games like Commonwealth, Olympics or Asian games leads to invest lot of money in infrastructure. States run facilities which will provide great base to the states. It is one of imperative to analyse cost benefits but here cost benefit analysis is not just a monetary turn. Cost in a same includes investment in state run facility and in infrastructure, sports infrastructure which includes stadiums, training camps that also of international standards. Consequently hosting big games leads to short term as well as long term benefits. In short term benefits it helps to inspect transport system, security measures and to fulfil loopholes if any. Firstly sports helps in National Integration and spreads enthusiasm among citizens in different region and encouragement to the sportsman leading to great performance which promotes sports spirit in the country and securing respectable place among different countries of the world.
Hosting country is on a stage to show to the world, its economic and social developments which will lead to better relationship with other countries which helps to enforce to economic policy as well. Government gets a chance to communicate its public diplomacy through tourist and foreign players which also leads to promote the tourism and cultural integration among different parts of the world.
When we analyse in this way we find hosting big games like commonwealth is very necessary to every country especially country like India which is emerging on international stage seeking a place in Security Council of UN.
However this investment in country is necessarily needed to regulate through proper channel, otherwise it will lead to big scams and maladministration.

(c) List any eight ‘Ramsar’ wetland sites located in India. What is the
‘Montreux Record’ and what Indian sites are included in this Record?
Important Points for Answer:
Ramsar sites
Montreux record
Montreux sites

Answer: The list of Ramsar Sites in India comprises Indian wetlands deemed to be of “international importance” under the Ramsar Convention. 8 Ramsar wetland sites located in India are:
Ashtamudi Wetland, Kerala; Bhitarkanika Mangroves, Orissa; Bhoj Wetland, Madhya Pradesh; Chandertal Wetland, Himachal Pradesh; Chilika Lake, Orissa; Deepor Beel, Assam; East Calcutta Wetlands, West Bengal; Harike Lake, Punjab
The Montreux Record is a register of wetland sites on the List of Wetlands of International Importance where changes in ecological character have occurred, are occurring, or are likely to occur as a result of technological developments, pollution or other human interference. It is maintained as part of the Ramsar List. Indian sites in the Montreux Record are Keoladeo National Park, Rajasthan; Loktak Lake, Manipur.

(d) Are the ‘Dedicated Freight Corridor’ railway project and the
’Golden Quadrilateral’ road project mutually complementary or competitive? Assess.
Important Points for Answer:
Dedicated Freight Corridor Golden Quadrilateral
Analysis Conclusion

Answer: Dedicated Freight Corridor is planned under 11th Five Year Plan. It will cover 2762 km route in two parts. One is the Eastern Corridor from Ludhiana to Dankuni and another is Western Corridor from Mumbai to Dadri. Both will interlink at Khurja. Golden Quadrilateral is the largest highway project in India of 5846 km consisting of four or six lane express highways. The project is to join four mega cities on all four directions of India - Delhi, Mumbai, Kolkata and Chennai. Both Road and Railway networks in India are already over - burdened by traffic. Recently Indian economic growth is poised to be around 8 to 10 percent for coming years. This will demand better infrastructure and transportation facility. Therefore, these projects will be helpful.
Again, the Dedicated Freight Corridor covers only east and west part, in
North India. There is no such corridor in South India.

(e) “Upliftment of the neglected sections of society will be best served with many more centers of the Indira Gandhi National Tribal
University.” Expand on the assertion made.
Important Points for Answer:
University Benefits of more centres

Answer: The Indira Gandhi National Tribal Universityenvisages to provide higher education to tribals all over India. It has been established by an act of Parliament of India at Amarkantak, Madhya Pradesh. It is fully funded by the Central Government through University Grant Commission.
Tribals in India require special focus for their upliftment. Eventhough they are culturally very rich, they lack proper and higher education. Any effort to expose them to urban culture will be surely a failure for their development, tribal - based programmes have to be developed.
Recently the Tribal University has opened its first regional campus at
Manipur in September 2009. Such more centres can provide them an opportunity to opt for higher education in their own area. They will contribute to higher studies and research. Tribal art, traditions, culture, language, medicinal system, forest based economical activities, advancement in technology etc. can be main focus apart from other curriculum.

(f) Comment on the salient features of the recent draft Model Real Estate

(Regulation of Development) Act of the Ministry of Housing and Urban Poverty Alleviation of the Central Government.
Important Points for Answer:
Draft model Key points
Answer:The Model Real Estate Act was announced by Ministry of Housing and Urban Poverty Alleviation.
Now it is arduous task for builders and developers to mislead the buyers using misleading details of the property or confusing them with Jargom terms.
This Act seeks to balance to disorganise the sector and transparency needed. Key highlight of the Act:
No advertisement before registration with authority. Registration will ensure that project has obtained all sanctions.
Advertisement should be specific and clear, no misleading images. Proper technology used, detailed specification of materials. Clear information of extra charges.
Any individual can inspect any time any document related to the project. Sale and purchase will be lodged in to an AIR thereby making income tax an obligation to ensure no illegitimate property or black money involved. Certification to the agent.
The regulatory body make it sure that end product is same as the investor invested into initially.
The above mentioned improvements in the real estate sector are for sure going to give the segment a boost. It will add much to the relief of the buyers. It will ensure transparency and accountability.

Q. 8 Answer each of the following, briefly but precisely. Each answer should be less than 50 words. 5 × 6 = 30

(a) How is disagreement between the Legislative Council and the Legislative Assembly of a State in passing of an ordinary Bill, resolved?

(b) Comment on the recent HFC - 23 emissions controversy that includes in its ambit some Indian companies.

(c) Comment on the recommendations of the Wadhwa Commission on the Public Distribution System.

(d) What are the salient features of The National Oil Spill Disaster Contingency Plan?

(e) You arrive first at, the scene where a bus accident has just occurred.
What emergency measures should you immediately and safely adopt?

(f) Bring out the sectoral and state - wise distribution patterns of Foreign
Direct Investment (FDI) inflows into the country.

Answer: (a) Where any controversy arises between the houses of Parliament on passing a bill, the President, according to Article 108 of the Constitution, can Summon both the houses to meet in a joint sitting to resolve the controversy. Like that, there is no any constitutional provision to summon the joint sitting in the state legislature over any ordinary bill. So, in case of disagreement between Legislative Council and Legislative
Assembly over an ordinary bill, according to art. 197, the will of the Assembly prevails over that of the Council. The Council can only delay the bill. The power of the Legislative Council has been restricted under Art. 197 in case of bills other than money bills.

(b) Controversy is brewing over HFC 23 destruction in CDM. Many viewed HFC 23 destruction as a cheap money maker. HFC is a potentially dangerous greenhouse gas. It is used in diverse niche applications and it produced as a byproduct of HCFC 22. It is used in refrigerator, air conditioner and foam industries.
UNFCCC try to mitigate its emission as clean development mechanism project by which its emission reduced substantially because sale of CERs generating significant revenue streams. Member of UN panel decided to analyse the scheme as companies from countries like India and China are getting huge credits (around half of carbon credits only by using 1% CDM project methodology). Indian companies are also reducing emission of HFC 23 by CDM to get carbon credit.

(c) To check maladies affecting the proper functioning of PDS, Supreme Court constituted the Wadhwa Committee by an order passed in a writ petition and also to suggest the remedial measures. Committee submitted its report on 21 August 2007. The recommendations are as follows:

(i) Computerisation of PDS operations.

(ii) Identify the exact quantity of poor families living below poverty line to effect the profit to the real beneficiary. So that they can get their due entitlements at fixed price and quantity in a fixed period.

(iii) Distribution on minimum rate.

(iv) Food Security to increase nutrition especially in malnutrition areas.

(v) There should be zero tolerance approach as there are more leakages and maladministration.

(vi) System lacks transparency and accountability, also it needs enforcing strict monitory measures.

(d) A draft National Oil Spill Disaster Contingency Plan (NOS-DCP) was prepared on 14 Apr 1988 and forwarded to all concerned agencies for comments. Final draft was approved by the Committee of Secretaries on 04 Nov 1993.
Objectives: The objectives of the plan are

(a) To develop appropriate and-effective systems for the detection and reporting of spillage of oil.

(b) To ensure prompt response to prevent, control, and combat oil pollution.

(c) To ensure that adequate protection is provided to the public health and welfare, and the marine environment.

(d) To ensure that appropriate response techniques are employed to prevent, control, and combat oil pollution, and dispose off recovered material in an environmentally accepted manner.

(e) To ensure that complete and accurate records are maintained of all expenditure to facilitate cost of recovery.

(e) The measures to be taken immediately after the bus accident are:

(i) We should start the rescue work immediately and get the help of all those who are available there.

(ii) We should give the first aid to those who are in dangerous condition.

(iii) Inform the nearest ambulance or emergency care or hospital. iv) Inform the police.

(v) We should take timing actions according to the situation and also coordinate the available resources to save the lives as early as possible.

(f) According to RBI, 35% of Mumbai region in 2000 - 2009, which comprising Maharashtra, Dadar Nagar Haveli and Daman & Diu. The Delhi region comprising UP, Haryana getting 15% cumulatively during the same period. Share of Gujarat, Karnataka, Tamil Nadu and Andhra Pradesh is 7%, 7%, 6%, 4% respectively.
Thus, more than 65% of total FDI inflow has been received by these states constituting 41% of the total population. BIMARU states having 40% of the population received as low as 0.67 % of total FDI. North east states received 0.1%. It is very low. Government is taking measures to project the North east states in the upcoming years.

Q. 9 Write brief notes on each of the following, in about 20 words each: 2 × 8 = 16

(a) Contributions of Latika Ghosh to the freedom struggle

(b) Bhai Maharaj Singh as a freedom fighter

(c) Chandrayaan - II

(d) Agni-V

(e) Babli Project

(f) ‘ Swavajamban’ Scheme

(g) National Investment Fund

(h) ‘Aerostat’balloon

Answer: (a) She was an Oxford scholar. She set up Mahila Rashtriya Sangha in 1928. She got 300 women in national movement.

(b) Bhai Maharaj Singh, the spiritual leader and Sikh nationalist, took up weapons against the British rule in 1847, he was imprisoned in Outram Jail Singapore where he died.

(c) Chandrayaan-2 is a joint lunar exploration mission proposed by the ISRO and the Russian Federal Space Agency (RKA) and has a projected cost Rs
425 crore, to be launched in 2013 by a GSLV.

(d) The Agni-V is a three stage solid fuel missile with range of about 6000 km. Agni-V will be able to carry multiple warheads and will have counter - measures against Anti- ballistic missile systems.

(e) The Babli project is a barrage being built by Maharashtra across the Godavari River in the Pochampad dam area. It created dispute between
Maharashtra and Andhra Pradesh.

(f) Swawlamban (NORAD) Scheme is being implemented by the Department of Women and Child Development, Government of India with partial assistance from Norway since 1982.

(g) It was set up for ploughing of 75 per cent of its income—derived through the disinvestment proceeds of Central Public Sector Enterprises (CPSEs)— for funding social sector projects. The balance 25 per cent is to be utilised for the revival of the ailing PSEs.

(h) Aerostat helium gas Balloon was the star attraction in the Commonwealth Games, Delhi. It is a 70 Crore Rupees Balloon and largest in any games ever used.

Q. 10. Who are the following and why have been in the news recently?

(Each answer should not exceed 20 words)2 × 8 = 16

(a) Divya Ajithkumar

(b) N.C. Saxena

(c) Islam A. Siddiqui

(d) Swarnalatha Cherukutty

(e) Nitin Nohria

(f) Deepak Mondal

(g) Gaurav Singh Saini

(h) Upendra Limaye

Answer: (a) A 21-year-old youngster from Chennai has written her name in a fresh page of Indian history by becoming the first woman to be conferred by the Army with the coveted ‘Sword of Honour’.

(b) In August 2010, a committee headed by him warned that plans by Vedanta Resources to mine on Dongria Kondh land in eastern India threaten the survival of the tribe. This lead to the Indian government refusing clearance to the project.

(c) An Indian American has been appointed as the chief agriculture negotiator of the United States, who would carry out all critical negotiations for the country in the crucial Doha round and other bilateral discussions.

(d) South Indian film playback singer Swarnalatha passed away. She was 37. She won the National Film Award for Best Female Playback Singer.

(e) Nitin Nohria became the tenth dean of Harvard Business School on 1 July 2010. He previously served as co-chair of the Leadership Initiative, Senior
Associate Dean of Faculty Development, and Head of the Organisational Behavior unit.

(f) Deepak Mondal received the Arjuna Award in 2010. He became the first footballer in eight years to receive the award.

(g) Thirteen-year-old Gaurav Singh Saini of Haryana has been given the Bharat award for saving more than 60 lives in a stampede at the Naina Devi temple.

(h) Upendra Limaye bagged the best male actor award at the 56th National Film Awards for 2008. Limaye bagged the top honour for the Marathi feature film Jogva.

2010 SOLVED PAPER II

 

Candidates should attempt ALL questions strictly in accordance with the instructions given under each question.

 

Q. 1 Answer the following in not more than 250 words each: 20 × 2 = 40

(a) Critically examine the implications of the disintegration of the Soviet
Union on India’s security and strategic perspectives. What further responses would you suggest in India’s foreign policy to accommodate these implications?
Important Points for Answer: Impact of USSR disintegration Changes in Indian foreign policy Suggestions
Answer:(a) Soviet Union was one of the two super powers. It disintegrated in 1991 making the world unipolar. India had very good friendship with
USSR.
Although India was following non - alignment policy, USSR was a major source of grant and trade. India was almost dependent on USSR for its defence procurement. USSR provided a big amount of financial aid to India.
With USSR’s disintegration, India faced a situation where it had to adjust its foreign policy in a new way so as to further its interests.
After 1991, Russia itself tried to improve relations with western powers. It was consolidating its economy. India had to find out new sources after 1991 economic crisis.
Russia had supported Pakistan baked resolution in UN for Nuclear free South
Asia. Russia was also of the view that India should sign NPT. It cancelled many defence deals with India under US pressure. So these changing defence, economic and diplomatic conditions came against India after disintegration of USSR. Suggestions for India’s foreign policy: India must not rely on any one country for its defence requirements. We should try to find out new suppliers. For balance of power situation in South Asia and Indian Ocean region, we have to improve relations with US and other western powers, rather than relying on Russia.
On economic front, we have to foster out trade links with major economic powers and blocks.

(b) Evaluate India’s approach towards meeting the country’s growing energy demands. Compare the success of this approach with that of another Asian giant which has perhaps the fastest growing energy demands.
Important Points for Answer:
Demand
Approach Compare

(b) India is the 2nd largest populated country in the world. It needs huge amount of energy to fulfil the various needs including cooking gas and fuels for the Aeroplanes. Energy plays a vital role in the economic growth. It has a direct influence or impact over the fields of industry, health, education, agriculture, transport, etc. India’s energy policy can be summarised as follows:

(i) Till market matures, regulation across the energy streams is necessity.

(ii) Fixing the price and source allocation to be determined by market forces under an effective and credible regulatory oversight.

(iii) Transparent and targeted subsidies. iv) Improved efficiencies across the energy chain.

(v) Policies that reflect externalities of energy consumption.

(vi) Giving incentives / disincentives to regulate market and consumer behaviour.

(vii) Management reforms to foster accountability and incentives for efficiency.
The policy shows the view of the Government to meet the demand for energy services of all sectors at competitive prices. And to provide subsidies to the energy needs of the households. India’s per capita electricity consumption is only 615 KWh per year as compared to world average of 2516 KWh and 1585 KWh in China. Despite the fact that India is the sixth largest electricity market in terms of power generation. India’s per capita oil consumption is 530 kg of oil, whereas the world average is 1770 kg of oil. And China’s per capita oil is 1240 kg of oil.
These facts shows that we are very much far behind even to the average level of International Standard. We are making civil nuclear agreement with world countries which are rich in this field to establish the Nuclear powered reactors to produce the electricity to meet the demands and also reduce the thermal power plants in order to control the pollution and also considering the availability of Coal.
We have got an exception from the NSG to import the nuclear power technology as well as resources to develop the nuclear power sector, at present it has only 4% in our total production of 1,50,574 mn. As per 31 July
2009, India’s power generation is as follows:

1. Thermal - 96,295 MW

2. Hydro - 36,917 MW

3. Renewable energy resources - 13,242 MW

4. Nuclear - 4,120 MW
However, China is presently engaged in a strong effort to control its rising energy use while promoting its rapid growth of its economy. Both the Asian giants are progressively marching towards their goal of achieving self - sufficiency in energy sector. But China is marching fast on the track. China follows state controlled pricing formula, whereas India follows market controlled pricing formula.

Q. 2 Answer any FOUR of the following in not more than 150 words each: 12 × 4 = 48

(a) How far have Japan’s principles of Hikaku San Gensoku impacted bilateral ties with India?
Important Points for Answer: Principles Impact for India
Answer:In late 1960, Parliament of Japan made a resolution called “Hikaku San Gensoku” also called “Three non-nuclear principles”. This is considered as a guiding principle of the Japan’s nuclear policy.
The former Prime Minister of Japan Mr Eisaku Sato has outlined the principles as follows:

(i) Japan shall neither possess nor manufacture the nuclear weapons.

(ii) Japan shall not permit their introduction into Japanese territory. India is one of the major country which needs to fulfil their energy demands.
We are making nuclear cooperation agreement with all major nuclear powered countries like USA, France, Russia etc. On this track, Japan also increasing the export of infrastructure technology including nuclear technology. For that they have established International Atomic Energy
Development Company with an aim to form a centralised platform to increase Japan’s competitiveness to win the nuclear power project contracts in the overseas. In 2006, Prime Minister Manmohan Singh and then Japan Prime Minister Shinzo Abe signed a joint statement under which Japan made a commitment to India to enhance Civil Nuclear Energy Cooperation under safeguard of IAEA. Due fo India’s status in the NPT, Japan acted in a snail speed towards its commitment. Finally, Japan came to negotiation in 2010. Because of the India’s stand on nuclear issue with regard to NPT and IAEA,
Japan’s anti-nuclear lobbies and the media expressed their concern about the deal and criticised the government for promoting the agreement.

(b) Assess the contributions of Indian Diaspora in the Caribbean.
Important Points for Answer: Indians in Caribbean
Their contribution
Answer:The Indian Diaspora in Caribbean countries are mainly descendants of our Indian migrated people. More than 20 lakh Indian Diaspora are living in various Caribbean countries.
They have contributed their performance in all fields including politics, arts and culture, sports, economic and industry. Indian origins are holding many key post in the Government of various countries such as Former President of Guyana, Bharat Jagdeo, and the current Prime Minister of Trinidad and Tobago Mrs. Kamla Parsad Bissessar.
Another Indian origin Mr. Basdeo Pandey had held that post from 1995 to 2001. Mr. Siddharth Ramphal was the Secretary General of the commonwealth twice.
The booker price winner Sir. V. S. Naipal and Samuel Selvon contributed much in the field of literature. Women writers such as Mahadai Das,
Rambhai Erpinet and Niala Maharaj have played a vital role in this field. In terms of sports, some good cricketers of West Indies are of Indian origin such as Ram iVaresh Sarwan, Sfu’ve iVarme Chancfrapau/, Dinesh Ramdin and Alvin Kalicharan. They made good contribution in their field.
Medicine is one of the important sector in which Indian doctors are playing crucial role all over the world especially a noted Cardiologist Dr. Anne
Dipchand and Dr. Budhendra Doobey are prominent.

(c) Do you agree with the view that Israel is a ’natural ally’ of India?
Important Points for Answer: India - Israel Relations
Natural Ally or Not
Answer:India and Israel established their diplomatic relations only in 1992. Earlier India had voted against creation of Israel in UNSCOP in 1947. India also voted against the admission of Israel into UN in May 1949. But changed circumstances in forty years prompt India to establish diplomatic relations with Israel in 1992. Oslo Accord of 1993 helped more in changing India’s attitude towards Israel. India and Israel have many common things to bring them closer. Both are neighboured by Islamic enemy-like countries. Both suffered by Islamic terrorism. Both are democracies. India and Israel developed co-operation in science and technology. India turned towards Israel for procurement of arms and military equipments of sophesticated nature specially after collapse of USSR. In satellite technology also both co - operated. All these factors can make India and Israel good friends but not natural ally. Because India has its Non-Alignment Policy and being natural ally requires to abandon the same. Again there is no defence agreement between two countries.

(d) Bringout the FDI and employment implications of China being a manufacturing hub and India a services hub?
Important Points for Answer: Chinese economy Indian economy Impact of FDI in employment
Answer:China and India are the fastest growing economies of the world. Even during the recession time, both countries poised an attractive growth rate. This attracted more FDI in both of them.
Due to reasons of vast resources and huge population in rural area, China has emerged as a manufacturing hub. Labour laws and human rights, salary structure and union activities are at minimal in China supporting manufacturing industries. In India, there is a large mass of educated middle class youth. This developed India as a service sector including BPOs, KPOs, LPOs, and all types of call centres apart from medical and financial services.
According to a hypothesis, per US$ 100 investment, manufacturing industry generates 8 jobs while service sector generates 43 jobs. High level of mechanisation has reduced jobs in manufacturing industries.
This scenario helps India generating more jobs being a service sector with per unit of FDI in comparison to manufacturing hub of China.

(e) Have the Uruguay Round negotiations and the resultant Trade
Related Intellectual Property Rights (TRIPS) agreement helped in resolving trade conflicts arising out of variations in different nations’ IPR regimes? Also list the steps taken by India to conform to TRIPS.
Important Points for Answer: IPR
Uruguay Round
TRIPS India’s measures
Answer:IPR Regime covers Intellectual Property Rights protection for original invention. They provide economical protection to original inventor.
Different countries have their own laws for IPRs. Developing and poor countries have not developed a strong mechanism in IPR. IPR violations are maximum there.
Developed countries demanded a strong IPR regime to protect their interest. Big MNCs and corporate houses can register an invention and will get exclusive right of marketing.
During Uruguay Round of GATTS, negotiations were held on TRIPS. TRIPS protected Intellectual Property Rights and demanded strengthening of IPR laws in developing countries. During the negotiations developing countries were put under pressure to accept a very liberal definition of IPR resulting into their disadvantage. India, a member of WTO has amended its IPR related laws so as to conform to TRIPS. India had “process patent” and now it started moving towards
“product patent”. India is registering own patents on traditional knowledge and inventions.

(f) Examine the recent developments towards the solution of the Bangladesh - Myanmar maritime boundary dispute. What implications do these have for India?
Important Points for Answer:
Dispute
Reason Solution Impact on India
Answer:Dispute between Bangladesh and Myanmar started in 2008 when Myanmar started lifting of mineral resources from a disputed block in Bay of Bengal. The block is disputed because there is no proper demarcation of maritime boundary between the two nations. Forces faced each other in Bay of Bengal but tension was solved by diplomatic efforts. Both countries tried to demarcate border in 2008, after a gap of 22 years, but failed. Bangladesh raised the issue at Arbitration Tribunal of the UN in October 2009.
Now in 2010 both countries agreed to settle their maritime boundary according the principle of equidistance. The area is rich in minerals and so tension occurred. The dispute has obvious impact on Indian security and peace. The solution is a boost to India’s concern for energy security. Once both countries settle their differences and start exploring oil and gas, India can look forward for cheap oil and gas from in neighbours.

Q. 3 Answer any EIGHT of the following in not more than 50 words each: 5 × 8 = 40

(a) Compare and contrast the role of the IMF with that of the World Bank.

(b) What are the major capacity-building and reconstruction projects being undertaken by India in Afghanistan?

(c) Bring out the significance of GDI and GEM as components of the UN’s Human! Development Report (HDR). Comment on India’s relative rankings with regard to HDI and GDI.

(d) What is ‘Round Tripping’ in the context of FDI inflow, and why has it been in the! news recently in the case of India?

(e) Comment on the reason for the recent hike in visa processing fees for certain categories of US visas. What is the likely impact of this hike on India?

(f) In the context of the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC), distinguish between ‘Annex I’ and ‘Annex II’ countries.

(g) Highlight the role of the Indian peacekeeping contingent as part of MONUSCO.

(h) List the salient features of the Riyadh declaration and the bilateral agreements between India and Saudi Arabia signed earlier this year.

(i) Comment on the reasons for the recent economic crisis in the so-called
‘PIGS’ countries of Europe.

Answer: (a) IMF is a European based institution that is primarily engaged in regulating the International movement of currencies depending upon the exchange value of nation’s currency. It is also engaged in export and import facilitation among nations.
The US based World Bank (IBRD) is more developmental financial institution that is engaged in creating more infrastructures among the nations particularly the emerging and least developed nations. It gives more grants or money on easy terms and conditions for the developmental and reconstruction works.

(b) In Afghanistan, India is helping in rebuilding the air link, providing humanitarian assistance which includes sending doctors, medicine, and investing in health and education, setting up of child care hospital in capital Kabul. It also provides foodgrains including 2,50,000 mts of wheat and other grains and constructing the Zaranj-Delaram highway which will help immensly in promoting the transport and economic activities. India constructed the Salma dam project and 220 KV transmission line from Pul-e-khumri to Kabul. Also India providing training to Afghan police and military in India. It gives training to Afghan civil servants also.

(c) The Human Development Report 1995 has introduced two new measures of human development that especially highlighted the status of women

(i) Gender related Development Index (GDI)

(ii) Gender Empowerment Measure (GEM)
The GDI measures achievement in the same basic capabilities as the HDI does but it considers the inequality in achievement between women and men.
The GEM is a measure of agency. It evaluates progress in advancing women’s standing in political and economic forums. It examines the equality of men and women in economic, political and decision making activities. India’s ranking is 139 as compared to general HDI which is 134 for the year that ended. India is thus relatively more of political empowerment due to legislative provision that makes India farely well placed in GEM ranking.

(d) Round - tripping is a money laundering technique. It is also known as round-trip transactions or “Lazy susans”. The method, involves a company selling an unused asset to another company while at the same time agreeing to buy back the same or similar assets at about a same price. Simply we can say this as a money laundering technique. Indian Government and RBI have introduced the PN (Participatory Note) mechanism of FII regime which has given a fillip to this practice of round tripping. In fact, Government and RBI support this PN and do not want to disclose the information about the investors. It results in such a way to this practice of round - tripping.

(e) India is the third largest immigration labour provider to US after Mexico and China is badly hit by these measures taken by the US including hike the
H1B visa processing fees from 25% to 200%. Since more than two-third of India’s GDP comes from service sector majority of which comes from the software companies and the employees remittances bulges the nations forex reserves, all these are adversly affected. Now the situation is returning to normal condition but it will take sometime to back on track.

(f) In the UNFCC, the world countries has been classified as:

(i) Industrialised countries and countries in transition as Annex 1 countries. (There are 40 countries in Annex I)

(ii) Developed countries, which pay for costs of developing countries as Annex II countries. (There are 23 countries in Annex II)
The UNFCCC’s prime object was to establish National greenhouse gas inventories of greenhouse gas (GHG) emissions and removals, which were used to create 1990 bench mark levels for accession of Annex I countries to the Kyoto Protocol and for the commitment of those countries to GHG reduction. The updated inventories must be submitted to Annex I countries regularly.

(g) In May 2010, the UNSC, adopting Resolution and announced that MONUC would renamed from July 1, 2010 to the United Nations
Organisation Stabilisation Mission in the Democratic Republic of the Congo

(MONUSCO). India also has sent its troops as a part of the UN peace-keeping force in Congo (MONUSCO). Over 3,500 soldiers from various countries have been deployed in Congo to monitor the peace process of second Congo war, though much of its focus subsequently turned to the Ituri conflict, the Kivu conflict and the Dongo conflict.

(h) After Delhi Declaration in 2006, India and Saudi Arabia has moved to the next stage in their friendly relationship.
Our Prime Minister’s visit to Saudi Arabia has brought some fruitful results in the relationship with the oil rich nation in the Gulf.
The Riyadh Declaration—a new era of strategic partnership was signed by Prime Minister Manmohan Singh and Saudi Arabia’s king Abdulla Bin
Abdul Aziz on March 1, 2010 in Riyadh.
We can summarise the declaration as follows:

(i) Both the countries reiterated their mutual desire to develop as knowledge - based economies based on advances in the areas of IT, space science and other technologies.

(ii) As per the New Declaration, the two leaders decided to raise their co-operation to a strategic partnership covering security, economic defence and political areas.

(iii) The two countries agreed to enhance cooperation in exchange of information relating to terrorist activities, money laundering, narcotics, arms and human trafficking and develop joint strategies to combat these threats.

(i) The crisis in Portugal, Italy, Greece and Spain collectively called PIGS threatened the Eurozone.
The root cause of this crisis was the sudden rise of the scale of deficit finance of each government triggered by increased government spending in order to settle down global financial crisis. Greece, one of the member of PIGS, was the economic centre of this crisis.
The ratio of deficit finance VGDP increased. Increase in national debt over 11% versus GDP simultaneously this triggered the drastic surge of Credit Default Swap (CDS), which leads to sovereign risk.

Q. 4 Answer any TWO of the following in not more than 150 words each: 12 × 2 = 24

(a) Examine the opportunities for a lasting West Asia peace solution in the context of the ‘historic’ talks started in September 2010.
Important Points for Answer:
West Asia Effect September talk

Answer: In September 2010, leaders from Israel and Palestine started direct talk in Washington, hosted by US. This was after a 20 months halt in dialogue. The talk aimed at resolving all final status issues between the parties.
US President Obama noted objective of the talk at Palestine and Israel living side by side in peace and security. This talk has surely increase chances of a durable peace in this region.
The talk involved issues of Palestinian refugees, guaranteeing Israel security, sharing of Jerusalem and adjusting the border.
However, there cannot be a long lasting peace in West Asia till some issues are solved successfully. One among them is solution of ongoing hostility between Israel and Palestine, which claims lives of hundreds of civilians frequently. Second issue is that Israel must extend the partial moratorium on construction of settlements in the occupied West Bank. Thirdly, Hamas should restraint from aggressive policies. Fourth important point is that
Hamas should be involved in peace process.

(b) Has the February agreement between the Sudanese government and the Justice and Equality Movement (JEM) been more successful in ending the strife in Darfur than the Abuja peace agreement of 2006? Evaluate.
Important Points for Answer: Problems in Sudan
Abuja Peace Agreement February Agreement Conclusion
Answer:Sudan is facing problems of civil war, especially in Darfur region.
War is between Government backed Janjaweeds and four tribal rebel groups.
Main tribal group is Justice and Equality Movement (JEM).
Abuja Peace Agreement was signed on 5th May between Government of Sudan and Sudanese Liberation Movement. Two rebel groups refused to sign the agreement. It was agreed that UN Peacekeeping Forces would replace AU forces. It also required disarming of Janjaweeds.
However, this agreement is not followed. AU Forces continue in Sudan and UN Forces are yet not allowed. Neither Janjaweeds have been disarmed.
Recently, Doha agreement was signed in February, 2006. This agreement continues discussion. It involves power-sharing, prisoner amnesty and integration of rebel groups in the Sudanese army.
However, success depends on consensus among rebel groups. It has better chances to succeed as all rebel groups are involved.

(c) Comment on the present status of the Biological Weapons Convention

(BWC). What important issues, do you think, need to be taken up at the seventh review conference of the BWC scheduled for 2011?
Important Points for Answer: BWC Important issues
Review Conference
Answer:Biological Weapon Convention was opened for signature on April 10, 1972 but it was entered into force on March 26, 1975. It is a Biological Weapon Disarmament Convention. It currently commits 163 states signatory and non-signatories that are partly to it, to prohibit the development, production and stock piling of Biological and toxin weapons. It is fostering collaboration between bio security stake holders.
To strengthen this convention, subsequent review conferences have reaffirmed that general purpose of future collaboration, scientific and technological developments have been done.
To enhance the confidence and promote co-operation among states, not to use and store pathogenic organism and toxins. Submitting annually confidence building measures to UN (2nd review conference).
To establish a group of government expert known as VEREX.
Allowing state parties to lodge a complaint with UN Security Council, if they suspect other member states are violating the convention. Although there are some violative countries as Russia, Iraq, Syria, China, North Korea.
Although absence of any formal verification regime to monitor compliance has limited, the effectiveness of convention and rejection of ad hoc group protocol by US concerning national security leads to some loosening of the convention. Important issues to be taken up at Seventh Review Conference: Co-operation on verification system. Enhancing international responding capability investigating and mitigating the fact.
National mechanism to establish and maintain the security and oversight of pathogenic organism and toxins. Co - operation on exchange information and data.
Member states should add measures to declare legislation, regulation and other measures.

Q. 5 Answer any FOUR of the following in not more than 150 words each: 12 × 4 = 48

(a) Bring out the applications of computer models in studying climate changes, with special reference to the Community Earth System Model

(CESM).
Important Points for Answer: CESM
Applications

Answer: (a) To study the dynamics of climate system CESM (Community Earth System Model) is a fully coupled, global climate model that provides state of the art computer simulations of earth’s past, present and future climate states. Its process is used by IPCC. It is made by National Centre for
Atomic Research. It represents the pinnacle of complexity in climate models and internalise as many process as possible with detailed regional predictions. CESM will help to find with great precision to some specific questions like:

1. What impact warming temperatures have on the massive ice sheets of green land and Antarctica?

2. How might climate change influence the severity and frequency of tropical cyclones, including hurricanes?

3. Effects of aerosols on clouds and temperatures.

4. How might platform in the ocean and atmosphere affect regional climate in coming decades?

(b) What is phytoremediation? Discuss its applications.
Important Points for Answer: Phytoremediation
Applications
Answer:Phytoremediation describes the treatment of environmental problems (bioremediation) through the use of plants that mitigate the environmental problem without the need to excavate the contaminant material and dispose it elsewhere.
Applications: Phytoremediation may be applied wherever the soil or static water environment has become polluted or is suffering ongoing chronic pollution. Examples where phytoremediation has been used successfully include the restoration of abandoned metal-mine workings, reducing the impact of sites where polychlorinated biphenyl have been dumped during manufacture and mitigation of on-going coal mine discharges. Phytoremediation refers to the natural ability of certain plants called hyper accumulators to bioaccumulate, degrade,or render harmless contaminants in soils, water or air. Contaminants such as metals, pesticides, solvents, explosives, and crude oil and its derivatives, have been mitigated in phytoremediation projects worldwide. Phytoremediation is considered a clean, cost-effective and nonenvironmentally disruptive technology, as opposed to mechanical cleanup methods such as soil excavation or pumping polluted groundwater. Over the past 20 years, this technology has become increasingly popular and has been employed at sites with soils contaminated with lead, uranium, and arsenic.

(c) Explain and differentiate among ‘Plasma’, ‘LCD’ and ‘LED’ television technologies.
Important Points for Answer: Plasma TV LCD LED TV

Answer: Plasma TV: These are called Plasma TV because pixels rely on plasma cells or fluorescence chambers. Plasma cells get activated when electricity is passed to TV. Plasma TV’s display is bright. These have low luminance “dark room” black level compared to the light grey of the unluminised parts of LCD display.
Although power consumption varies with picture content with bright scenes drawing significant more power than darker one. Plasma TV is having wider viewing angle. Less susceptible to reflection glare in bright room with superior performance. Plasma TVs are heavy in weight and big in size comparatively these are very susceptible to screen burn in. LCD: It means Liquid Crystal Display. It produces a black and coloured image by selectively filtering white light. Light is typically provided by a series of cold cathode flourescent lamps

(CCFL) at back screen. LCD are inefficient relatively in terms of power use per display size.
The accuracy and quality of the resulting colours depends on the back light sources. LED: These are LED TVs that use LED BACKLIGHT rather than the CCFL. LED BACKLIGHT leads to dramatic impact resulting in thinner panel, less power consumption and heat dissipation. It is having bright display with better contrast level. It is having wide colour capacity. It is less environmental pollutant on disposal.

(d) What is ‘cloud computing’? Bring out its essential features and list its advantages and limitations.
Important Points for Answer: Cloud - computing - what is it? Its applications
Advantages Limitations
Answer:Cloud computing is Internet-based computing, whereby shared servers provide resources, software, and data to computers and other devices on demand, as with the electricity grid. Cloud computing is a natural evolution of the widespread adoption of virtualization, service-oriented architecture and utility computing. Details are abstracted from consumers, who no longer have need for expertise in, or control over, the technology infrastructure “in the cloud” that supports them.
Advantages: Reduced Cost—It is paid incrementally, saving organisation’s money. Increased storage—can store more data on private computer.
Highly automated—No need to keep software updated manually. Flexibility
Mobility - Information can be accessed anywhere. Limitations: Security—It uses the power of online connectivity to handle processing request. Data can be used by unwanted persons. End-user connectivity - Strong internet connection is required, may not work with weak connection. Infrastructure is again a challenge when a company opts for its own server.

(e) Discuss the applications of nanotechnology in the health care sector.
Important Points for Answer:
Nanotechnology in health sector
Answer:Nanotechnology has the potential to completely change the health care sector for next generation. As a matter of fact, nanotechnology may bring an ongoing revolution in health care.
Nanotechnology will help medical professionals in today’s most excruciating medical issues, such as repairation of damaged organs, diagnosis and treatment of cancer cells, removal of obstruction in brain and it can help in better drug delivery system.
Nanotechnology can be used for both in vivo and in vitro biomedical research and applications. Nano particles can be used in targeting tumour cells at initial stage. Particles like dentrine, quantandofs and fallevene.
Antimicrobial coating to stop microbial infection.
Use of “signature protein” to treat cancer.
Nanotechnology can help in design certain drugs that are difficult to make because of their structural constraints by controlled manufacturing system at the molecular level.

Q. 6 Comment on any THREE of the following in not more than 50 words each: 5 × 3 = 15

(a) Rotterdam Convention

(b) The Mavi Marmara incident

(c) Significance of the Kampala declaration of the International Criminal Court (ICC)

(d) Trial chamber of the Extraordinary Chambers in the Courts of Cambodia (ECCC) and its recent verdict.

Answer: (a) Rotterdam Convention, is a multilateral treaty to promote shared responsibilities in relation to importation of hazardous chemicals.
The convention promotes open exchange of information and calls on exporters of hazardous chemicals to use proper labeling, include directions on safe handling, and inform purchasers of any known restrictions or bans. Parties can decide whether to allow or ban the importation of chemicals listed in the treaty, and exporting countries are obliged to make sure that producers within their jurisdiction comply.

(b) On the MV Mavi Marmara, clashes broke out after activists violently resisted the Israeli forces. Nine activists were killed (Eight Turkish nationals and one Turkish - American), and dozens of activists and seven Israeli commandos were wounded. Widespread international condemnation followed, Israel-Turkey relations were strained, and Israel subsequently eased its blockade.
The Gaza flotilla raid was a military interception by Israel against six ships of the “Gaza Freedom Flotilla” on May 31, 2010.

(c) Significance of the Kampala declaration of the International Criminal Court (ICC): The Review Conference of ICC concluded its general debate on
1 June, 2010. The Conference adopted the Kampala Declaration which deals mainly with the reaffirmation of the commitment of States to the Rome Statute and its full implementation, as well as its universality and integrity. States also decided to henceforth celebrate 17 July, the day of the adoption of the Rome Statute in 1998, as the Day of International Criminal Justice.

(d) The Trial Chamber of the Extraordinary Chambers in the Courts of Cambodia (ECCC) recently found KAING Guek Eav alias Duch guilty of crimes against humanity and grave breaches of the Geneva Conventions of 1949 and sentenced him to 35 (thirty-five) years of imprisonment.
The substantive part of the trial against KAING Guek Eav commenced on 30
March 2009. Closing arguments ended on 27 November 2009 after a total of
72 trial days, during which 24 witnesses, 22 Civil Parties and nine experts were heard.

Q. 7 Comment on any SIX of the following in not more than 50 words each: 5 × 6 = 30

Answer: (a) MRSA infection: Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus

(MRSA) is a bacterium responsible for several difficult-to-treat infections in humans. It may also be called multi drug- resistant Staphylococcus aureus or oxacillin - resistant Staphylococcus aureus (ORSA).
MRSA is, by definition, any strain of Staphylococcus aureus bacteria that has developed resistance to beta-lactam antibiotics which include thepenicillins

(methicillin, dicloxacillin, nafcillin, oxacillin, etc.) and the cephalosporins.

(b)HRP-2M Choromet: HRP - 2M Choromet is a 35 cm tall, 1 pound humanoid robot which is, in a sense, the younger brother of HRP-2. It runs on
ART - Linux which is a hard real time linux developed at the National Institute of Advanced Industrial Science and Technology in Japan. Choromet’s CPU is an SH - 4 which runs at 240 MHz and has 32 MB of Random access memory and 32 MB of Flash ROM. Choromet was developed in partnership between General Robotix, Inc. and
Moving Eye, Inc., Pirkus Robotics and Dai Nippon Technical Research Institute.

(c) Maglev vehicles: Maglev (derived from magnetic levitation), is a system of transportation that suspends, guides and propels vehicles, predominantly trains, using magnetic levitation from a very large number of magnets for lift and propulsion. The highest recorded speed of a Maglev train is 581 kilometres per hour (361 mph), achieved in Japan in 2003, only 6 kilometres per hour (3.7 mph) faster than the conventional TGV wheel-rail speed record.

(d) Super absorbent polymers (SAP): Superabsorbent polymers (SAP)

(also called slush powder) are polymers that can absorb and retain extremely large amounts of a liquid relative to their own mass.
A SAP’s ability to absorb water is a factor of the ionic concentration of the aqueous solution. In deionized and distilled water, a SAP may absorb 500 times its weight (from 30-60 times its own volume), but when put into a 0.9% saline solution, the absorbency drops to maybe 50 times its weight.

(e) Ginkgo biloba: Ginkgo (Ginkgo bilcba) in Chinese and Japanese) known as the Maidenhair Tree, is a unique species of tree with no close living relatives. The tree is widely cultivated and introduced, since an early period in human history, and has various uses as a food and traditional medicine.

(f) CARTOSAT-2B: CARTOSAT - 2B: CARTOSAT 2B is an Earth observation satellite in a sun-synchronous orbit. The satellite is the seventeenth satellite in the Indian Remote Sensing (IRS) satellite series to be built by the Indian Space Research Organisation.
The satellite carries a panchromatic (PAN) camera capable of taking blackand- white pictures in the visible region of electromagnetic spectrum.

(g) Various generations of mobile phone technology:
OG - Pre - cellular mobile telephony technology in 1970s.
OSG - Improved features of 0G.
1G - First Generation of Wireless Telephone Technology of 1980s.
2G - Provided SMS facilities.
3G - Includes broad band services and multi - media communication.
4G - High speed communication including TV services.

Q. 8 Who / What are the following and why have they been in the news recently?

(Your answers should be in a sentence or two only): 3 × 8 = 24

(a) Craig Venter

(b) Shahran Amiri

(c) Wolfram Alpha

(d) ‘Dreamliner’ aircraft

(e) Blue gene project

(f) ‘Predator’ drones

(g) ‘Deepwater Horizon’ incident

(h) ACTN 3 gene

Answer: (a) John Craig Venter is an American biologist and entrepreneur, most famous for his role in being one of the first to sequence the human genome and for his role in creating the first cell with a synthetic genome in 2010.

(b) Shahram Amiri is an Iranian nuclear scientist who disappeared during an apparent umrah pilgrimage to Mecca, Saudi Arabia in either May or June

2009. The Iranian government accused the US government of kidnapping him.

(c) Wolfram Alpha is an answer engine developed by Wolfram Research. It was released to the public on May 15, 2009. It was voted the greatest computer innovation of 2009 by Popular Science.

(d) The Boeing 787 Dreamliner is a long range, mid - sized, wide - body, twin - engine jet airliner developed by Boeing Commercial Airplanes. It seats 210 to 330 passengers.

(e) Blue Gene is a computer architecture project to produce several supercomputers, designed to reach operating speeds in the PFLOPS (peta FLOPS) range, and currently reaching sustained speeds of nearly 500 TFLOPS (tera FLOPS).

(f) The General Atomics MQ-1 Predator is an unmanned aerial vehicle

(UAV) used primarily by the United States Air Force (USAF) and Central Intelligence Agency (CIA). It carries cameras and other sensors.

(g) The Deepwater Horizon oil spill is an oil spill in the Gulf of Mexico which flowed for three months in 2010. It is the largest accidental marine oil spill in the history of the petroleum industry.

(h) Alpha - actinin - 3, also known as alpha-actinin skeletal muscle isoform 3 or F-actin cross-linking protein, is a protein that in humans is encoded by the ACTN3 gene. This gene expression is limited to skeletal muscle.