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Intermediate – Requires understanding of interlinked articles, evolving judicial interpretations, and exceptions; frequently tested in mains and prelims with case-based questions.
Question: Which of the following statements correctly describes the scope of Article 19 of the Indian Constitution? A) It guarantees six freedoms to both citizens and foreign nationals. B) It allows reasonable restrictions on freedom of speech in the interest of public order. C) It includes the right to strike as an integral part of freedom of association. D) It is enforceable against private individuals without state action. Answer: B Explanation: Article 19(2) permits reasonable restrictions on freedom of speech for reasons including public order. Why others fail: A is wrong because Article 19 rights are available only to citizens.
Question: The 44th Amendment Act, 1978 is significant because it: A) Added the Right to Education as a Fundamental Right. B) Prevented the suspension of Article 21 during a national emergency. C) Introduced the concept of 'basic structure' in the Constitution. D) Abolished the Right to Property as a Fundamental Right. Answer: B Explanation: The 44th Amendment restored civil liberties after Emergency, making Article 21 non-suspendable. Why others fail: D is partially correct but B is more comprehensive; Right to Property was removed earlier in 44th Amendment, but B reflects a key post-Emergency reform.
Question: In which case did the Supreme Court hold that the 'right to privacy' is an intrinsic part of Article 21? A) K.S. Puttaswamy v. Union of India (2017) B) Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India (1978) C) Gobind v. State of Madhya Pradesh (1975) D) R. Rajagopal v. State of Tamil Nadu (1994) Answer: A Explanation: A nine-judge bench in Puttaswamy (2017) unanimously declared privacy a fundamental right under Article 21. Why others fail: C recognized privacy as part of personal liberty but not as a standalone fundamental right.
Question: Which Article empowers Parliament, and not state legislatures, to make laws for giving effect to Fundamental Rights? A) Article 31 B) Article 32 C) Article 35 D) Article 36 Answer: C Explanation: Article 35 mandates that only Parliament can legislate on matters like preventive detention (Article 22), enforcement of FRs (Article 32), etc. Why others fail: B (Article 32) is a right, not a legislative power clause.
Question: The doctrine of 'prospective overruling' was applied by the Supreme Court in which case? A) Golaknath v. State of Punjab (1967) B) Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala (1973) C) Minerva Mills v. Union of India (1980) D) I.R. Coelho v. State of Tamil Nadu (2007) Answer: B Explanation: In Kesavananda Bharati, the Court applied prospective overruling to uphold the validity of constitutional amendments made before 1973. Why others fail: A held that Parliament cannot amend FRs, but did not use prospective overruling.
Question: Which of the following is NOT a correct match between a Fundamental Right and its corresponding Article? A) Protection against arrest and detention – Article 22 B) Right to minority education institutions – Article 30 C) Right to vote – Article 32 D) Protection of language, script, and culture of minorities – Article 29 Answer: C Explanation: Right to vote is a statutory right under Representation of the People Act, 1951, not a Fundamental Right under Article 32. Why others fail: C is tempting due to association with rights, but voting is not a FR.
Question: The 'basic structure' doctrine, which limits Parliament’s power to amend the Constitution, was established in: A) Shankari Prasad v. Union of India (1951) B) Golaknath v. State of Punjab (1967) C) Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala (1973) D) Minerva Mills v. Union of India (1980) Answer: C Explanation: Kesavananda Bharati laid down that Parliament cannot alter the 'basic structure' of the Constitution. Why others fail: B held FRs unamendable but was overruled in part by Kesavananda.
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