By Fatskills Exam Guides Team — the exam nerds behind 28,500+ quizzes and 2.1M practice questions across 500+ global exams.
Intermediate – requires understanding of constitutional provisions, judicial precedents, and procedural details; frequently tested in prelims and mains with application-based questions.
Trap: Election Commission has the power to register and deregister political parties independently – Fact: EC registers parties under Section 29A of RPA, 1951, but deregistration occurs only after due process and court/tribunal orders; EC cannot unilaterally cancel registration without legal grounds. Trap: Model Code of Conduct has statutory backing – Fact: MCC has no legal enforceability; it is a set of guidelines issued by EC based on consensus among parties and upheld through moral authority and executive compliance. Trap: CEC and Election Commissioners have equal powers and removal procedures – Fact: While they have equal decision-making powers, only CEC enjoys constitutional protection in removal; others can be removed on CEC’s recommendation, as per 1991 Act and 2014 judgment. Trap: EVMs are fully electronic and store votes digitally – Fact: EVMs are standalone machines with no internet/WiFi; votes are stored in microcontrollers, and VVPAT provides physical verification to ensure transparency.
Question: Which of the following statements regarding the removal of Election Commissioners is correct? A) All Election Commissioners, including the CEC, can be removed by the President on the recommendation of the Prime Minister. B) The CEC can be removed by a resolution passed by both Houses of Parliament with a special majority. C) Other Election Commissioners can be removed only by a resolution of Parliament, similar to the CEC. D) The CEC and other Election Commissioners have identical constitutional protection against removal. Answer: B Explanation: Article 324(5) provides that the CEC can be removed by the President on grounds of proven misbehaviour or incapacity, only after Parliament passes a resolution by special majority. Why others fail: D is tempting because both are Election Commissioners, but only CEC has constitutional protection; others are removed on CEC’s recommendation per statutory law.
Question: The Model Code of Conduct (MCC) becomes operative in India: A) Immediately after the announcement of election schedule by the President. B) From the date of notification of election by the Election Commission. C) Only after the filing of nominations by candidates. D) When the first election rally is held by any political party. Answer: B Explanation: The MCC is operational from the date of announcement of the election schedule by the Election Commission, as per established practice since 1971. Why others fail: A is incorrect because the President does not announce the schedule; EC does, under Article 324.
Question: The use of Voter Verifiable Paper Audit Trail (VVPAT) in Indian elections was mandated by: A) The Representation of the People Act, 1951. B) A directive from the Ministry of Law and Justice. C) A Supreme Court judgment in 2013. D) An executive order of the Election Commission. Answer: C Explanation: In People’s Union for Civil Liberties v. Union of India (2013), the Supreme Court directed EC to introduce VVPAT with EVMs to ensure electoral transparency. Why others fail: A is tempting because RPA governs elections, but VVPAT was introduced via judicial intervention, not statutory provision.
Question: Which of the following is a constitutional function of the Election Commission? A) Recognition of political parties. B) Delimitation of constituencies. C) Superintendence of election processes. D) Conduct of Rajya Sabha elections. Answer: C Explanation: Article 324 grants EC the superintendence, direction, and control of elections to Parliament, state legislatures, and offices of President and Vice-President. Why others fail: D is tempting because EC conducts Rajya Sabha elections, but it is not a constitutional function; it is done under delegated authority.
Question: The first use of Electronic Voting Machines (EVMs) in India occurred in: A) 1982, in a by-election in Kerala. B) 1998, during the 12th Lok Sabha elections. C) 2004, in all constituencies of the 14th Lok Sabha elections. D) 1977, during the post-Emergency general elections. Answer: A Explanation: EVMs were first used in 1982 in the Parur assembly constituency of Kerala during a by-election. Why others fail: C is tempting because 2004 was the first full general election with EVMs, but initial use was in 1982.
Question: The NOTA option in Indian elections was introduced based on a Supreme Court directive in which case? A) S. S. Dhanoa v. Union of India B) Kihoto Hollohan v. Zachilhu C) People’s Union for Civil Liberties v. Union of India D) Union of India v. S. K. Sinha Answer: C Explanation: The Supreme Court in PUCL v. Union of India (2009) ruled that voters have a right to secrecy and negative voting, leading to the introduction of NOTA in 2013. Why others fail: B is tempting because it relates to anti-defection, but NOTA stems from PUCL (2009).
Question: The Delimitation Commission for redrawing parliamentary and assembly constituencies is constituted under: A) Article 82 and Article 170 of the Constitution. B) The Delimitation Act, 2002. C) The Representation of the People Act, 1951. D) Executive order of the Ministry of Home Affairs. Answer: B Explanation: The Delimitation Commission is constituted under the Delimitation Act, 2002, passed by Parliament under Article 82 and Article 170. Why others fail: A is tempting because Articles 82 and 170 mandate delimitation, but the actual mechanism is through the 2002 Act.
Join 4M+ learners. Unlock unlimited quizzes, wrong-answer tracking, flashcards + reminders, study guides, and 1-on-1 challenges.