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Study Guide: UPSC GS Paper II Statutory Bodies Election Commission Structure Powers Model Code
Source: https://www.fatskills.com/upsc-civil-services-examination-cse/chapter/upsc-gs-paper-ii-statutory-bodies-election-commission-structure-powers-model-code

UPSC GS Paper II Statutory Bodies Election Commission Structure Powers Model Code

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⏱️ ~8 min read

Must‑Know (20–25 detailed bullets)

  • Article 324 – vests superintendence, direction, and control of elections in the Election Commission; upheld in S. S. Dhanoa v. Union of India (1989) as empowering EC to act independently even during emergencies.
  • Chief Election Commissioner (CEC) and Election Commissioners appointed by President under Article 324(2); no parliamentary consultation required, as clarified in T. N. Seshan v. Union of India (1995).
  • Removal of CEC by President on grounds of proven misbehaviour or incapacity, only after Parliament passes a resolution by special majority; identical to removal of Supreme Court judge under Article 218 (now 124(4)).
  • Other Election Commissioners can be removed on recommendation of CEC; established in Union of India v. S. K. Sinha (2014), creating asymmetry in removal powers.
  • Election Commission is a multi-member body since 1993; initially single-member until Constitution (52nd Amendment) Act, 1985, and later institutionalized by Appointment of Election Commissioners Act, 1991.
  • Model Code of Conduct (MCC) – not legally enforceable but binding through executive instructions; first introduced in 1960 for Kerala assembly elections, formalized nationally in 1971.
  • MCC becomes operational from the date of election announcement by EC; applies to ruling parties, candidates, and political parties, as per EC’s 2009 guidelines.
  • EC can issue advisory directions to suspend government advertisements during elections under MCC; upheld in Chief Election Commissioner v. M. R. Vijay Kumar (2017).
  • EC has power to disqualify candidates under Representation of the People Act (RPA), 1951 – Section 10A; used in 2008 against Umlesh Yadav for paid news.
  • EC recommends disqualification of MPs/MLAs under Tenth Schedule (anti-defection law); final decision rests with Speaker, but EC’s opinion is binding, as per Kihoto Hollohan v. Zachilhu (1992).
  • EC conducts elections under Article 324 and RPA, 1951; RPA provides legal framework for electoral rolls, nomination, polling, and disputes.
  • Election Commission oversees delimitation of constituencies based on Delimitation Commission Act, 2002; last delimitation based on 2001 census, frozen until 2026 per 84th Amendment.
  • EC uses Voter Verifiable Paper Audit Trail (VVPAT) with EVMs since 2013; Supreme Court mandated in People’s Union for Civil Liberties v. Union of India (2013).
  • EVMs first used in 1982 in Kerala (Parur assembly seat); full national deployment by 2004 general elections.
  • EC conducts simultaneous elections for Lok Sabha and State Assemblies, last held in 1971; Law Commission recommended revival in 2018 report.
  • EC has advisory role in recognition of political parties under Election Symbols (Reservation and Allotment) Order, 1968; grants national/state party status based on electoral performance.
  • EC can countermand elections under Rule 60 of Conduct of Elections Rules, 1961; exercised in 2009 for Bihar’s 11 constituencies due to rigging.
  • EC issues guidelines on election expenditure – candidates must submit expense statements; limit for Lok Sabha varies by state (e.g., ₹95 lakh for larger states as per 2024 revision).
  • EC initiated Systematic Voters’ Education and Electoral Participation (SVEEP) in 2010 to boost voter awareness and turnout.
  • EC monitors social media during elections through Media Certification and Monitoring Committee (MCMC) at district and state levels.
  • EC can depute civil servants for election duty under Section 20 of RPA, 1951; refusal can lead to disciplinary action.
  • EC has no constitutional power to conduct Rajya Sabha elections; conducts them under delegated authority via Rules of Procedure, though members are elected by state assemblies.
  • EC recommended NOTA (None of the Above) in 2013 based on Supreme Court directive in People’s Union for Civil Liberties v. Union of India (2009).
  • EC issues guidelines on exit polls – cannot be published until completion of last phase of elections; regulated under Section 126A of RPA, 1951.
  • EC advises President on questions of disqualification of MPs under Article 103; President acts on EC’s opinion, which is binding, as per RPA, 1951.

Difficulty Level

Intermediate – requires understanding of constitutional provisions, judicial precedents, and procedural details; frequently tested in prelims and mains with application-based questions.

Common UPSC Traps (3–5 factual traps)

Trap: Election Commission has the power to register and deregister political parties independently – Fact: EC registers parties under Section 29A of RPA, 1951, but deregistration occurs only after due process and court/tribunal orders; EC cannot unilaterally cancel registration without legal grounds.
Trap: Model Code of Conduct has statutory backing – Fact: MCC has no legal enforceability; it is a set of guidelines issued by EC based on consensus among parties and upheld through moral authority and executive compliance.
Trap: CEC and Election Commissioners have equal powers and removal procedures – Fact: While they have equal decision-making powers, only CEC enjoys constitutional protection in removal; others can be removed on CEC’s recommendation, as per 1991 Act and 2014 judgment.
Trap: EVMs are fully electronic and store votes digitally – Fact: EVMs are standalone machines with no internet/WiFi; votes are stored in microcontrollers, and VVPAT provides physical verification to ensure transparency.

Practice MCQs (5–7 questions)

Question: Which of the following statements regarding the removal of Election Commissioners is correct?
A) All Election Commissioners, including the CEC, can be removed by the President on the recommendation of the Prime Minister.
B) The CEC can be removed by a resolution passed by both Houses of Parliament with a special majority.
C) Other Election Commissioners can be removed only by a resolution of Parliament, similar to the CEC.
D) The CEC and other Election Commissioners have identical constitutional protection against removal.
Answer: B
Explanation: Article 324(5) provides that the CEC can be removed by the President on grounds of proven misbehaviour or incapacity, only after Parliament passes a resolution by special majority.
Why others fail: D is tempting because both are Election Commissioners, but only CEC has constitutional protection; others are removed on CEC’s recommendation per statutory law.

Question: The Model Code of Conduct (MCC) becomes operative in India:
A) Immediately after the announcement of election schedule by the President.
B) From the date of notification of election by the Election Commission.
C) Only after the filing of nominations by candidates.
D) When the first election rally is held by any political party.
Answer: B
Explanation: The MCC is operational from the date of announcement of the election schedule by the Election Commission, as per established practice since 1971.
Why others fail: A is incorrect because the President does not announce the schedule; EC does, under Article 324.

Question: The use of Voter Verifiable Paper Audit Trail (VVPAT) in Indian elections was mandated by:
A) The Representation of the People Act, 1951.
B) A directive from the Ministry of Law and Justice.
C) A Supreme Court judgment in 2013.
D) An executive order of the Election Commission.
Answer: C
Explanation: In People’s Union for Civil Liberties v. Union of India (2013), the Supreme Court directed EC to introduce VVPAT with EVMs to ensure electoral transparency.
Why others fail: A is tempting because RPA governs elections, but VVPAT was introduced via judicial intervention, not statutory provision.

Question: Which of the following is a constitutional function of the Election Commission?
A) Recognition of political parties.
B) Delimitation of constituencies.
C) Superintendence of election processes.
D) Conduct of Rajya Sabha elections.
Answer: C
Explanation: Article 324 grants EC the superintendence, direction, and control of elections to Parliament, state legislatures, and offices of President and Vice-President.
Why others fail: D is tempting because EC conducts Rajya Sabha elections, but it is not a constitutional function; it is done under delegated authority.

Question: The first use of Electronic Voting Machines (EVMs) in India occurred in:
A) 1982, in a by-election in Kerala.
B) 1998, during the 12th Lok Sabha elections.
C) 2004, in all constituencies of the 14th Lok Sabha elections.
D) 1977, during the post-Emergency general elections.
Answer: A
Explanation: EVMs were first used in 1982 in the Parur assembly constituency of Kerala during a by-election.
Why others fail: C is tempting because 2004 was the first full general election with EVMs, but initial use was in 1982.

Question: The NOTA option in Indian elections was introduced based on a Supreme Court directive in which case?
A) S. S. Dhanoa v. Union of India
B) Kihoto Hollohan v. Zachilhu
C) People’s Union for Civil Liberties v. Union of India
D) Union of India v. S. K. Sinha
Answer: C
Explanation: The Supreme Court in PUCL v. Union of India (2009) ruled that voters have a right to secrecy and negative voting, leading to the introduction of NOTA in 2013.
Why others fail: B is tempting because it relates to anti-defection, but NOTA stems from PUCL (2009).

Question: The Delimitation Commission for redrawing parliamentary and assembly constituencies is constituted under:
A) Article 82 and Article 170 of the Constitution.
B) The Delimitation Act, 2002.
C) The Representation of the People Act, 1951.
D) Executive order of the Ministry of Home Affairs.
Answer: B
Explanation: The Delimitation Commission is constituted under the Delimitation Act, 2002, passed by Parliament under Article 82 and Article 170.
Why others fail: A is tempting because Articles 82 and 170 mandate delimitation, but the actual mechanism is through the 2002 Act.

Last‑Minute Revision (20–25 one‑liners)

  • ⚠️ Article 324 vests EC with superintendence, direction, and control of elections.
  • CEC removed by Parliament via special majority; other ECs on CEC’s recommendation.
  • First EVM use: 1982, Parur by-election, Kerala.
  • VVPAT mandated by SC in PUCL v. Union of India (2013).
  • MCC first used in 1960, Kerala; formalized in 1971.
  • NOTA introduced in 2013 based on PUCL (2009) judgment.
  • Delimitation frozen until 2026 via 84th Amendment (2001).
  • Delimitation Commission Act, 2002 – legal basis for constituency redrawing.
  • EC conducts elections for President, VP, Parliament, and State Legislatures.
  • Tenth Schedule – EC recommends disqualification; Speaker decides.
  • S. S. Dhanoa v. Union of India (1989) – affirmed EC’s plenary powers.
  • T. N. Seshan v. Union of India (1995) – strengthened EC’s autonomy in appointments.
  • Union of India v. S. K. Sinha (2014) – upheld asymmetry in removal of ECs.
  • Kihoto Hollohan v. Zachilhu (1992) – EC’s opinion binding in defection cases.
  • RPA, 1951 – legal basis for electoral process, including disqualifications.
  • Section 10A, RPA – EC can inquire into candidate’s corrupt practices.
  • Section 126A, RPA – prohibits exit poll publication until last phase ends.
  • Election Symbols Order, 1968 – EC allots symbols to parties.
  • SVEEP launched in 2010 for voter education.
  • EC advises President on MP disqualification under Article 103.
  • EC can countermand elections under Rule 60, Conduct of Elections Rules, 1961.
  • EC can depute government officers for election duty under Section 20, RPA.
  • Paid news led to Umlesh Yadav’s disqualification in 2008.
  • Simultaneous elections last held in 1971; Law Commission recommended revival in 2018.
  • EC has no constitutional role in Rajya Sabha elections; conducts them via rules.


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