2011 General Studies Solved Paper I, Paper II

2011 SOLVED PAPER I
Time Allowed: Three Hours Maximum Marks: 300

Candidates should attempt ALL questions strictly in accordance with the instructions given under each question. The number of marks carried by each question is indicated at the end of the question.

 

Q. 1 Answer any three of the following in about 250 words each: 20 × 3 = 60

(a) ‘Essentially all that is contained in Part IV - A of the Constitution is just a codification of tasks integral to the Indian way of life.’ Critically examine this statement.
Important Points for Answer:
- Part IV A of the constitution
- Legal effect
Repository of Indian social values

Answer: The fundamental duties of citizens were added by the 42nd
Amendment Act in 1976 on the recommendation of Swaran Singh Committee. The ten fundamental duties which were given in Article 51A of the Constitution can be classified as either duties towards Self, duties concerning the Environment, duties towards the State and duties towards the
Nation.
This was inserted into the Constitution to make the fundamental rights more meaningful. In fact, there can be no rights in a society where there are no duties. Almost every religion emphasised the concept of duties and all the religion has imposed several moral duties on its followers. Failure to perform such duties resulted in sin for which there was punishment in another world.
The Hindu jurisprudence has emphasised the concept of duty in the form of command of the god. Everyone has to perform the religious duties in his life time as per the law of the religion.
The Fundamental Duties are not enforceable in court of law. But now this trend has been changing by various judicial decisions of the Supreme Court.
Though they are not enforceable but they can be used while interpreting the fundamental rights and directive principles of state policy for the welfare of the state and people.
They lack judicial effect but their constitutional and moral impact is effective in inspiring some legislative actions. Therefore, they are truly codification integral to the Indian way of life, but effective and inspiring codification.

(b) ‘The exercise of executive clemency is not a privilege but is based on several principles, and discretion has to be exercised in public considerations.’ Analyse this statement in the context of the judicial powers of the President of India.
Important Points for Answer:
- Power to Pardon (Clemency)
- How to use the Power
- Discretionary ?
- Guiding Principles
- Judicial cases
Answer:In the popular Government as well as monarchies it is considered prudent to vest in the executive authority the power to ameliorate or avoid particular criminal judgements. Article 72 of the Constitution gives the President the power to grant pardons, reprieves, respite or remission of punishment and to suspend, remit or commute, the sentence of any person convicted of any offence. The power is available where:
The punishment is by a court Martial;
The punishment is for an offence against any law relating to a matter to which the executive power of the Union extends; and in all cases where a person is sentences to death.
This power like all other powers is exercised by the President on the advice of the Council of Ministers.
The object of conferring such power on the Constitutional Head is to keep the door open to correct judicial errors and to provide relief from undue harshness or evident mistake in the operation of law.
Judges are after all human beings and are likely to commit mistakes. In Kehar Singh case (Kehar Singh v. Union of India, A.I.R. 1989. S.C. 653), the Supreme Court examined the Presidential power to grant pardon and laid down following principles:
The petitioner who seeks pardon from the President has no right to an oral hearing by the President. There is no need for the Court to lay down specific guidelines for the exercise of power under Art. 72.
The power is to be exercised on the advice of the Central Government. It is open to President to scrutinize the evidence on record and take a view different from the view taken by the court.
The exercise of the power by the President is not subject to judicial review.
The President is not bound to give reasons for his order.
Judicial Review of the Pardon
Judicial review of the order of the President or Governor under Art. 12 or
Art. 161 is available on the following grounds:

(a) that the order has been passed without application of mind.

(b) that the order is mala fide.

(c) that the order is based on extraneous or wholly irrelevant considerations.

(d) that relevant material has been kept out of consideration.

(e) that the order suffers from arbitrariness.
A person was granted pardon on the ground that he was a “good congress worker” and implicated and false witnesses were produced. The court held that irrelevant and extraneous materials entered into the decision. The decision was vitiated. The order granting pardon was set aside ( Epuru Sudhankar v. Govt, of A.P., 2006).

(c) Discuss the extent, causes, and implications of the ‘nutrition transition’ said to be underway in India.
Important Points for Answer:
- What is Nutrition Transition
- Extent
- Causes
- Impact
Answer:Increased consumption of unhealthy foods compounded with increased prevalence of overweight in middle-to-low-income countries is typically referred to as the “Nutrition Transition.” It occurs in conjunction to the Epidemiological Transition and has serious implications in terms of public health outcomes, risk factors, economic growth and international nutrition policy.
According to the World Health Organisation’s global database, India has a preschool childhood obesity prevalence of about 1%. Repeated episodes of malnutrition, followed by nutritional rehabilitation, are known to alter body composition and increase the risk of obesity.
Rapid quantitative changes in dietary intake in developing countries indicate an increase in per capita availability of food and are also accompanied by qualitative changes in the diet. Food balance data from the Food and
Agriculture Organisation (FAO) of India show that higher - income groups consumed a diet with 32% of the energy from fat while the lower - income groups consumed only 17% energy from fat. More recent dietary surveys in
Delhi also confirm that the upper income groups in urban India currently consume higher levels of energy from fat as compared with the urban poor or rural populations.
Dietary deficits and excesses—and the lifestyle changes that accompany industrialisation and urbanisation with economic development - make a significant contribution to this epidemic. In this brief overview some of the crucial contributors to the nutrition transition in India, are important determinants of the burgeoning problem in this country.

(e) Bring out the salient features of the PCPNDT Act, 1994, and the implications of its amendment in 2003.
Important Points for Answer: PCPNDT Act, 1994 Salient Features
Amendment in 2003 Implications
Answer:The “Pre-conception and Pre - natal Diagnostic Techniques

(prohibition of sex selection) Act 1994” is enacted with the object to increase the child sex ratio. Since 1992, the child sex ratio has shown a considerable downward trend. In
2001, though the sex ratio showed an increase, but the child sex ratio declined to 927 (Census 2001). This decline was despite the enactment of PCPNDT Act, 1994 indicating the ineffectiveness and improper implementation.
The salient features of the PCPNDT Act, 1994 are :

(i) Regulation of parental diagnostic techniques (eg., amniocentesis and ultrasonography) for detection of genetic abnormalities, by restricting their use to registered institutions.

(ii) Prohibition of sex selection, before and after conception.

(iii) The Act allows the use of these techniques only at registered places for a specified purpose and by a qualified person, registered for this purpose.

(iv) Prevention of misuse of such techniques for sex selection before or after conception.

(v) Prohibition on sale of ultrasound machines to persons not registered under this Act.

(vi) Prohibition of advertisement of any technique for sex selection as well as sex determination.

(vii) Provides punishments for the violation of provisions of this Act. In order to the ineffectiveness of the PCPNDT Act, the Government wanted to give more teeth to that Act and amended the Act with effect from 14th February, 2003. And renamed as “Pre-conception and Pre-natal Diagnostics
Techniques (Prohibition of sex selection), Act, 1994”.
The 2003 Amendment made the Act more comprehensive and strong to fulfill the purpose of the Act, and to increase the child sex ratio and bring the gender equality in the society.

Q. 2 Answer ONE of the following in about 250 words : 20

(a) Trace the salient sequence of events in the popular revolt that took place in February 1946 in the then ‘Royal Indian Navy’ and bring out its significance in the freedom struggle. Do you agree with the view that the sailors who took part in this revolt were some of the unsung heroes of the freedom struggle ?
Important Points for Answer:
RIN Revolt
Reasons Effect - Significance
Unsung heroes

Answer: After the Second World War, three officers of the Indian National
Army (I.N.A.), General Shah Nawaz Khan, Colonel Prem Sahgal and Colonel Gurbaksh Singh Dhillon were put on trial at the Red Fort in Delhi for
“waging war against the King Emperor”, i.e. the British sovereign personifying British rule. The three defendants were defended at the trial by
Jawaharlal Nehru, Bhulabhai Desai and others. Outside that, the trials inspired protests and discontent among the Indian population, who came to view the defendants as revolutionaries who had fought for their country. In January 1946 British airmen stationed in India took part in the Royal Air Force Mutiny of 1946 largely over the speed of their demobilisation, but also in some cases issuing demands against being used to continue British Imperialism. The Viceroy at the time, Lord Wavell, noted that the actions of the British airmen inspired both the RIAF and RIN mutinies.
The mutiny was initiated by the ratings of the Royal Indian Navy on 18 February 1946. It was a reaction to the treatment meted out to ratings in general and the lack of service facilities in particular. On 16 January 1946, a contingent of 67 ratings of various branches arrived at Castle Barracks, Mint Road, in Fort Mumbai. This contingent had arrived from the basic training establishment, F1MIS Akbar, located at Thane, a suburb of Bombay, at 1600 in the evening. One of them Syed Maqsood Bokhari went to the officer on duty informed him about the galley (kitchen) staff of this arrival.
The sailors were that evening alleged to have been served sub-standard food.
Only 17 ratings took the meal, the rest of the contingent went ashore to eat in an open act of defiance. It has since been said that such acts of neglect were fairly regular, and when reported to senior officers present practically evoked no response, which certainly was a factor in the buildup of discontent. The ratings of the communication branch in the shore establishment, HMIS
Talwar, drawn from higher strata of society, harboured a high level of revulsion towards the authorities, hawing complained of neglect of their facilities fruitlessly. It was the Royal Indian Navy revolt that sparked the great fire which led to freedom of India, therefore the contribution of soldiers is undoubtedly unique. It is disappointing that the heroes who took part in that revolt are forgotten in the pages of history and remain unsung.

(b) Evaluate the influence of the three important women’s organisations of the early twentieth century in India on the country’s society and politics. To what extent do you think were the social objectives of these organisations constrained by their political objectives ?
Important Points for Answer:
Women’s organisations
Objectives
- Constrains
Answer:Women-only organisations like All India Women’s Conference

(AIWC) and the National Federation of Indian Women (NFIW) emerged.
Women were grappling with issues relating to the scope of women’s political participation, women’s franchise, communal awards, and leadership roles in political parties.
The All India Women’s Conference (AIWC) was founded in 1927 “as an organisation dedicated to upliftment and betterment of women and children”.
As well as continuing its original mission, the AIWC has since diversified into various social and economic activities involving women. Today there are more than 100,000 members in over 500 branches. AIWC is recognised worldwide as a premier organisation working for women’s development and empowerment.
AIWC was registered in 1930 under the Societies Registration Act, XXI of 1860. (No. 558 of 1930) with the following main objectives :
To work for a society based on the principle of social justice, personal integrity and equal rights and opportunities for all.
To secure recognition of the inherent right of every human being to work and to achieve the essentials of life, which should not be determined by accident of birth or sex but by planned social distribution.
To support the claim of every citizen to the right to enjoy basic civil liberties.
To stand against all separatist tendencies and to promote greater national integration and unity.
To work actively for the general progress and welfare of women and children and to help women utilize to the fullest, one of the fundamental rights conferred on them by the Constitution of India.
To work for permanent international amity and world peace.
National Federation of Indian Women is the women’s wing of Communist Party of India. It was established in 1954 by several leaders including Aruna
Asaf Ali.
The first women’s university, SNDT Women’s University, was founded on
June 2,1916 by the social reformer Dhondo Keshav Karve with just five students.
Of these organisations, Naional Federation of Indian Women was purely or mostly a political organisation and had to achieve welfare of women through political progress. But SNDT University was founded with social objectives and concentrated on educational development of women and their rightful place in the society. But of course, AIWC was largely a political cum social women’s organisation whose social objectives were constrained by political ones.

Q. 3 Answer one of the following in about 250 words: 20

(a) Critically examine the design of the National Rural Livelihoods
Mission (NRLM) scheme. Do you think it has a better chance of success than the Swarnajayanti Gram Swarojgar Yojana (SGSY) in achieving its objectives ?
Important Points for Answer:
- NRLM
- Comparison with SGSY
- Conclusion

Answer: The National Rural Livelihood Mission (NRLM) was announced in the Budget 2009-10 to replace the Swarna Jayanti Gram Swarojgar Yojana

(SGSY). It is targeted to reduce the rural poverty by 2015 by redesigning the SGSY.
Though the NRLM promises a lot with regard to creation and strengthening of rural livelihoods, it does suffer some serious shortcomings, which if not addressed are likely to see it more in the same path as the IRDP, SGSY and other rural welfare programs. The criticisms are as follows :

(i) Its emphasis on SHG for providing livelihood. Over emphasis of
NRLM on SHGs could lead exclusion (rather than inclusion) of rural low income people, who are not able to participate through SHGs. Hence, the
NRLM focuses on the household as the primary target of the program.

(ii) The NRLM has been designed to treat the rural economy as one. But in reality, there are many segments exist in the low income peoples.

(iii) The NRLM also has another defect, it lacks serious attention to value added agriculture and rural MSMEs - which, as the experiences of many countries suggest, can play a major role in enabling and sustaining inclusive growth in rural areas.

(iv) The strategy of the NRLM is too broad and sweeping. The design is also too academic and top down with the minimal involvement of
“next target group”. This was the reason for the failures of IRDP and SGSY—in fact, if these had not failed, we would not need an NRLM today.
On account of the above deficiencies in NRLM design, it is feared that it may also meet the same fate similar to SHSY. Suggestions for effective implementation and design are :

(i) NRLM may focus on covering all the willing households under SHGs, irrespective of BPL/ APL status.

(ii) NRLM may have two - fold strategy for poverty alleviation and rural prosperity.

(iii) There should be a permanent implementation mechanism at the district and block level.

(iv) To get the desirable employment transformation and to take full advantage of booming secondary and tertiary sectors, under livelihood promotion, NRLM may promote small and medium enterprises in
‘services’ and ‘manufacturing’ sectors with SHG federations. Generally, the social welfare schemes must be implemented with the people’s participation and in transparent manner. The implementing authority should reach the people.

(b) Highlight the structure, objectives and role of the Advertising Standards Council of India. In what way has the August 2006 government notification made it more effective ?
Important Points for Answer:
ASCI Structure
Objectives
Role
- 2006 Notification
Answer:ASCI is a self-regulatory voluntary organisation of the advertising industry. It was established in 1985 and is committed to the cause of selfregulation in advertising, ensuring the protection of the interest of consumers.
The ASCI was formed with the support of all four sectors connected with
Advertising viz., Advertisers, Ad agencies, Media (including Broadcasters and the Press) and others like PR Agencies, Market research companies, etc. Its main objective is to promote responsible advertising and thus enhancing the public’s confidence in advertising. The ASCI’s membership of the European Advertising Standards Alliance (EASA) ensures that it gets valuable advice, learning and even influence at the international level.
The ASCI seeks to regulate the content of advertising with the primary purpose of protecting consumer interest and also to ensure fairness in competition. It deals with complaints received from consumers and industry against advertisements which are considered as false, misleading, indecent, illegal, leading to unsafe practices or unfair competition, and is in contravention of the ASCI codes for self-regulation in advertising.
ASCI’s role has been acclaimed by various agencies including the Government. However, it lacked the forces of legal recognition. The Government of India taking note of this and in August 2006 vide a notification amended the caste. Television Networks Rules, 1994 to ensure that at least as far as TV commercials go, they abide by the ASCI Code.
Hence, violation of ASCI’s codes is now violation of Government rules.
ASCI thus aims to achieve the own over-reaching goal; to maintain and enhance the public’s confidence in advertising.

Q. 4 Comment on any FIVE of the following in about 150 words each: 12 × 5 = 60

(a) Salient recommendations of the RBI-appointed Damodaran committee on customer service in Banks.
Important Points for Answer:
Damodaran Committee
Recommendations

Answer: The Damodaran Committee on customer service constituted by the
RBI submitted its report in August 2011. The recommendations are :

(i) To include the customer service and grievance redressal as a mandatory parameter in the performance appraisal report of every employee.

(ii) It has recommended active involvement of the boards of banks to guarantee customer satisfaction.

(iii) It has suggested an agenda on the level of implementation of the Bank’s Code of Commitments to customers and an overview on the grievance redressal mechanism in the bank should be placed before the bank every quarter before the customer service committee.

(iv) Every bank should ensure that they have comprehensive policies for customer acceptance, cane and severance.

(v) Emphasising on ‘customer centricity’, it has recommended that bank boards should evolve human resources policies which will “recruit for attitude and train for skills”.

(vi) The Bench level customer committee meetings should be replaced with a meeting of customers of all banks of that area and is hold in the presence of representatives of banks at periodic interest.

(b) Deendayal Disabled Rehabilitation Scheme (DDRS).
Important Points for Answer:
DDRS Structure
Objectives

Answer: The Umbrella Central Sector scheme of the Ministry of Social Justice is called the “Scheme to promote voluntary action for persons with disabilities”. It was revised on 2003 and renamed as “Deendayal Disabled Rehabilitation Scheme (DDRS)”.
Under the Scheme, funds for the welfare of persons with disabilities are provided to the non-governmental organisations for projects like special schools for disabled, vocational training centres, half way homes, community based rehabilitation centres, early intervention centres for disabled and rehabilitation of leprosy cured persons, etc.
NGOs are being given assistance under DDRS for providing a wide range of services to children/persons with disability, e.g.,

(i) programmes for pre-school and early intervention

(ii) special education

(iii) vocational training and placement

(iv) community based rehabilitation

(v) manpower development

(vi) psycho - social rehabilitation of persons with mental illness

(vii) rehabilitation of leprosy-cured persons, etc.
The DDRS guidelines include model projects covering various services provided by voluntary agencies which can be supported through grant-in-aid.
Model projects give the following details :

(i) objective, needs to be addressed, target group in terms of type of disability and age and minimum permissible number of beneficiaries

(ii) teacher-beneficiary ratio (for pre - schools and special schools)

(iii) number of trades and an illustrative list of trades (for vocational training)

(iv) maximum amount of recurring and non - recurring assistance admissible for a specified number of beneficiaries in the form of cost norms.

(c) Evolution of “Green Benches’ in our higher judiciary.
Important Points for Answer: Green Benches Cases of concern
- Benefits

Answer: In several cases, the Supreme Court of India, has upheld that “The Right to Life” under Article 21 includes the “right to clean environment” also, and derived various doctrines to uphold the right to environment, such as, polluter’s pays principle, precautionary principles, sustainable development, etc.
The Supreme Court exercising its power under Article 142 of the Constitution created the Compensatory Afforestation Management and Planning Authority. Further, the Constitution of the Forest Commission by the Supreme Court, establishment of ‘Green Courts’ in various states and the pro-active role of the higher judiciary in environmental matters culminated in the enactment of National Green Tribunal Act of 2010, that proposes to efficiently and expeditiously dispose of cases relating to environmental protection. For environmental governance in India, the Constitution of a “Green bench” of judiciary to adjudicate environmental matters will be further significant step towards improving the quality of environment when the India has been caught in tussle between developmental and sustainability issues. Law Commission of India also recommended in its 186th report for the specialised Environmental Courts to strengthen and revitalise environmental governance in the country.

(d)Distinction between “Department Related Parliamentary Standing Committees’ and ‘Parliamentary Forums’.
Important Points for Answer: Standing Committees
Distinctions
- Parliamentary Forums
Answer:To make the parliamentary activity more effective and to make the executive more accountable to the legislature, the beginning had been made in the Eighth Lok Sabha in 1989 by setting up 3 departmental related subject committees.
There are at present, 24 departmental related parliamentary standing committees. Each of these standing committees consists of not more than 45 members - 30 from Lok Sabha and 15 from Rajya Sabha. A minister is not eligible to be nominated to these committees. The term of member of these committees is one years. The functions of these committees include consideration of Demand for Grants, consideration of Annual Reports.
There are, at present, five parliamentary forums. The first one on water conservation was constituted in 2005. The parliamentary forums do not interfere with or encroach upon the jurisdiction of the concerned departmentally related standing committees.
Members are appointed by speaker of Lok Sabha and Chairman of Rajya Sabha, each forum consists of not more than 31 members out of which 21 from Lok Sabha and 10 from Rajya Sabha.
The new committee system was inaugurated by the then Vice - President and Chairman of Rajya Sabha Shri K. R. Narayanan in 1993. It is considered as historical landmark in the evolution of committee system in our Parliament.

(e)Benefits and potential drawbacks of ‘cash-transfers’ to ‘Below Poverty Line’ (BPL) households.
Important Points for Answer: Cash-transfer scheme Benefits
- Drawbacks
Answer:The Government has announced the replacing of public distribution system through which subsidised food-grain is made available to people, with
“direct cash subsidies”, where fixed amount will be transferred into the people’s bank accounts each month.
The Government made the first move towards this by announcing in the recent budget that fertilizer and kerosene will be replaced by cash transfers.
On the other hand, the Right to Food Campaign strongly feels that the PDS must not be dismantled, as it plays an important role in not only improving people’s access to food but also revitalising agriculture and promoting food production.
As per Arjun Sengupta Committee report:

(i) Nearly 77% of countries’ population live on less than 23.20 per day.

(ii) Almost half of the children are malnourished.

(iii) 70% of women are anemic.

(iv) One third of adult have low body mass index.
Advantages: Cost efficient, choice, multiplier effect, avoids disincentive effect, power costs for recipients.
Disadvantages: Consumption/nutrition, less available from donors, disadvantages to women, more prone to diversion, anti social use.

(f) New initiatives during the 11th Five Year Plan in the National Programme for Control Blindness (NCPB).
Important Points for Answer:
NPCB
New Initiatives in 11th FYP
Answer:The National Programme for Control of Blindness (NPCB) was launched in 1976 as a 100% centrally sponsored scheme with, the goal of reducing the prevalence of blindness from 1.4% to 0.3%. According to the Survey of 2001-02, prevalence of blindness was estimated at 1.1%.
The NPCB has planned to develop the eye care facilities in every district level and to develop human resources for providing eye care services to reduce the backlog of blindness through identification and treatment of blind.
The vision 2020- The Right to sight initiative programme also planned to reduce the blindness from 1.49% to 0.3%. In the Eleventh Five Year Plan, the funding to this programme has been enhanced. It was pegged at Rs. 1200 million. Further, capacity building programmes has been launched under the plan. To streamline the efforts the programme has been subsumed under the NRHM in the Eleventh Five Year Plan. Currently, nearly 20,000 donated eyes are collected each year in India. The lack of awareness is the main cause for this low performance. The NPCB is also working to increase the numbers by implementing various awareness programmes.

Q. 5 Examine any THREE of the following in about 150 words each: 12
× 3 = 36

(a) The impact of climate change on water resources in India.
Important Points for Answer:
- Climate change
- Impact on water resources in India

Answer: The impact of climate change on water resources in India is evident through erratic monsoon, more frequent floods and droughts, stronger cyclones and rivers changing their course frequently. The severity is also due to the prevailing more than 7000 km. of coastline.
The changing rainfall pattern has adversely affected ground water recharge, wetlands both coastal and terrestrial. Climate change has resulted in melting of Himalayan glaciers. It has the potential of making the Himalayan Rivers swell first and then turning them into seasonal rivers, threatening the source of freshwater. It can also lead to salt water intrusion and threatening aquaculture and coastal agriculture.
The impact has been severe also because India is still an agricultural country with its large population being dependant on weather related livelihood through agriculture, forestry, etc.

(b) Measures taken by the Indian government to combat piracy in the Indian Ocean.
Important Points for Answer:
- Piracy in Indian Ocean
- Indian Govt’s. Measures

Answer: Indian government has used INS Talwar to foil several bide by pirates near the Gulf of Aden. Indian government is coordinating the antipiracy measures at the international level with China, European countries and with the Gulf countries. Indian government has placed surveillance radars in countries like Maldives and Sri Lanka to secure the sea lanes in the Indian Ocean. It has signed agreements with Madagascar, Seychelles and Mauritius for anti-piracy measures. Government has also taken measures in strengthening the coastal security by equipping and reforming the coast guards. However, incidents like unmanned vessel drifting in the ocean and reaching the coast of Mumbai have highlighted the holes in our coastal security which needs to be plugged. Supreme Court has recently asked the Central Government to formulate separate piracy law for trying the pirates and to take care of the compensation to the victim’s family. Currently, piracy is being dealt under the provision of Indian Penal Code.

(c) The significance of counter-urbanisation in the improvement of metropolitan cities in India.
Important Points for Answer:
- Counter-urbanisation
- Metropolitan cities
- Effect in improvement
Answer:Counter-urbanisation is a demographic and social process where people move from large urban areas into rural areas, thereby leapfrogging the rural urban fringe. It might mean daily commuting but could also require lifestyle changes and the increased use of ICT (home working or teleworking). It is the process of migration of people from major urban areas to smaller urban settlements and rural areas. Counter-urbanisation affects the layout of rural settlements. Modern housing estates locate of the edge of small settlements. Industrial units are sited on main roads leading into the settlement. Counter-urbanisation will reduce pressure on the metropolitan cities and its basic amenities like drinking water supply, sewage facilities, continuous supply of electricity, education facilities, etc. as people move out due to following :

(i) Increase in car ownership enabling their movement, growth in information technology (E-mail, faxes and video conferencing) meaning more people can work from home.

(ii) Urban areas are becoming increasing unpleasant place to live.
This is the result of pollution, crime and traffic congestion.

(iii) More people tend to move when they retire.

(iv) Now business parks being developed on the edge of cities (on Greenfield sites) meaning people no longer have to travel to the city centre. People now prefer to live on the outskirts of the city where they work.

(d) Problems specific to the de-notified and nomadic tribes in India.
Important Points for Answer:
- De-notified and nomadic tribes
- Reasons and status
- Their problems
Answer:Post-independence the Criminal Tribe Act 1871 was replaced; and criminal tribe nomenclature was replaced with De-notified Tribe (DNTs) which is still considered derogatory. They have been discriminated; British government included some of the tribes like Gonds, Ho and Santhals under this categorisation as they had rebelled against the British Raj.
A major challenge in the intervention comes due to dispersed nature of the tribes and having a nomadic culture surviving on shifting cultivation. This results in health and educational services a challenging task to deliver. It also makes the implementation of nutritional initiative like addressing iodine deficiency a challenging task. Preservation of their culture, script, practices also gets hampered due to the same reason.
Two different opinions arise with regard to the reservation for the DNTs to raise their social and economic conditions. One view supports providing reservation within existing group of SCs, STs and OBCs while the other view supports creation a new group for the reservation of DNTs.

Q 6 In the context of the freedom struggle, write short notes (not exceeding 50 words each) on the following: 5 × 3 = 15

(a) ‘Benoy-Badal-Dinesh’ martyrdom.

(b) Bharat Naujawan Sabha

(c) Babbar Akali’ movement.

Answer: (a) On December 1930, Benoy along with Dinesh Chandra Gupta and Badal Gupta, dressed in European costume, entered the Writers’ Building and shot dead Simpson, the Inspector General of Prisons, who was infamous for the brutal oppression on the prisoners. This inspired further revolutionary activities in Bengal. After Independence, Dalhousie Square was named B.B.D. Bagh—after Benoy-Badal-Dinesh.

(b) Bharat Naujawan Sabha was an association of Indian youths which was established at a convention held in April 1928 at the Jallianwala Bagh in
Amritsar. The aims of the Sabha were to create a youth wing of peasants and workers with a view to usher in revolution in the country and overthrow the British rule. Bhagat Singh was its secretary and principle organiser.

(c) Babbar Akali Movement was a radical outgrowth of the Akali movement for the reform of Sikh places of worship during the early 1920’s. The latter, aiming to have the shrines released from the control of priests who had become lax and effete over the generations, was peaceful in its character and strategy. In the course of the prolonged campaign, Akalis true to their vows patiently suffered physical injury and violence at the hands of the priests as well as of government authority.

Q. 7 Comment on the following in NOT more than 50 words each: 5 ×
6 = 30

(a) Phase - IV of the tiger monitoring programme in India.

(b) Why the Central Statistics Office has notified a new series of Consumer Price Index from this year?

(c) Composition and functions of the National Executive Committee of the National Disaster Management Authority.

(d) The Bihar Special Courts Act, 2009 and why it has been in the news recently?

(e) The Telecommunications Ministry’s proposed Spectrum
Management Commission.

(f) The Community-Led Total Sanitation (CLTS) approach to sanitation.

Answer: (a) The Ministry of Environment and Forests initiated the phase - IV of the tiger monitoring programme. This will initiate intensive, annual monitoring of tigers at the tiger reserve level, across 41 protected areas in the country. According to Ministry, this marks an important milestone in the comprehensive tiger conservation strategy. Annual monitoring at the tiger reserve level will allow getting regular updates on the number and health of tiger populations across the country, and will strengthen the conservation efforts. Until now monitoring was done once in four years.

(b) The Central Statistical Office has notified a new series of consumer price index with 2010 as its base year, for rural and urban areas and for the nation as a whole. It will give a comprehensive picture of inflation at the national level for retail prices. Government also proposes to use it for giving dearness allowance for government employees in the Seventh Pay Commission.

(c) The National Executive Committee of the National Disaster Management
Authority comprises the union home secretary as the chairperson, and the secretaries to the government of India in the Ministries/Departments of
Agriculture, Atomic Energy, Defence, Drinking Water Supply, Environment and Forests, Finance (Expenditure), Health, Power, Rural Development, Science and Technology, Space, Telecommunication, Urban Development,
Water Resources and the Chief of the Integrated Defence Staff of the Chiefs of Staff Committee as members.

(d) Bihar Special Court Act, 2009 provides that the property of corrupt persons can be attached even when the probe is under way, if the authorised officer concludes that the acquisition of the property was the result of the offence committed by the accused. Bihar implemented it and some officials came under this Act. Its constitutional validity was questioned in Supreme Court which refused to stay this Act.

(e) Spectrum Management Commission is a new entity to manage and regulate spectrum allocation. The commission will subsume wireless planning coordination wing of the department of telecom and will get wider powers including dispute settlement, pricing and regulation related to spectrum. While the DoT will continue to be the licensor, all issues pertaining to spectrum allocation will be brought under Spectrum
Management Commission.

(f) Community Led Total Sanitation (CLTS) : CLTS is an innovative methodology for mobilising communities to completely eliminate open defection (OD). Communities facilities are to conduct their own appraisal and analysis of open defecation and take their own action to become ODF (open defecation free). CLTS focuses on the behavioural change needed to ensure real and sustainable improvement. It invests in community mobilisation instead of hardware, and shifting the focus from toilet construction for individual households to the creation of open defecation free villages.

Q. 8 Attempt the following in not more than 50 words each: 5 × 4 =
20

(a) Distinguish either between the ‘Moatsu’ and ‘Yemshe’ festivals of
Nagaland or the ‘Losar’ and ‘Khan’ festivals of Arunachal Pradesh.

(b) Write a sentence each on any five of the following traditional theatre forms :

(i) Bhand Pather

(ii) Swang

(iii) Maach

(iv) Bhaona

(v) Mudiyettu

(vi) Dashavatar

(c) What are the major different styles of unglazed pottery making in India?

(d) List the classical dance forms of India as per the Sangeet Natak
Akademi.

Answer: (a) Moatsu festival : It’s an annual event celebrated in the month of
May, by the Ao tribes of Nagaland. The festival is a time of gaiety and recreation after the hectic work of cleaning fields, burning jungles and sowing seeds. This work also includes cleaning up the wells and repair and construction of houses by elders. Major attractions of this festival is Sangpangtu; a fire is lit and men and women sit around it and the women serve meat and wine.
Yemshe festival : Festival celebrated in the month of October by Pochury tribe in Nagaland to commemorate the arrival of the new harvest season. It is a festival that strengthens relationships. The newly wedded couples share their food and eat together, during the festival the unmarried boys and girls look for a match for themselves. Losar festival: Losar is the new year festival celebrated by Monpas (who forms the major portion) in Tawang, Arunachal Pradesh. They enjoy the festival with friends and family. Festival falls in the end of February or early
March, for about 8 to 15 days. Khan festival : Khan is a festival celebrated by the Mill tribe of Arunachal Pradesh. It brings together people from every background irrespective of their caste and creed. The priest ties a piece of wool in the neck of all the participants. This thread is considered to be sacred because they are prepared specially by the priest for the welfare of the whole community.

(b) (i) Bhand Pather is a social drama incorporating mythological legends and contemporary social satire of Kashmir.

(ii) Swang is a popular folk dance drama or folk theatre form in
Rajasthan, Haryana, Uttar Pradesh and Malwa region of Madhya Pradesh.

(iii) Maach is originally a Rajasthan folk theatre that survives in the villages of Madhya Pradesh. The Maach of M.P. is a folk theatre form presented largely through song and dances. Men portray all the characters and the themes are generally historical. There is not much of acting.

(iv) Bhaona is a dance drama popular in the state of Assam, Sankardeva who was scholar and social reformer, was the father of Bhaona.

(v) Mudiyettu is ritualistic dance drama performed after the harvest of summer crops in Kerala, in 2010, Mudiyattu was included in
UNESCO Intangible Cultural Heritage List.

(vi) Dashavatar refers to the ten most famous incarnations of Vishnu or sometimes Krishna.

(c) Different styles of unglazed pottery making in India: It is the oldest form of pottery practiced in India, which has developed with time, there are basically three types of unglazed pottery :

(i) Paper thin pottery, wherein biscuit coloured pottery is decorated with incised patterns.

(ii) Scrafito technique, wherein the pot is polished and painted with red and white slips along with intricate patterns, while the outline is incised.

(iii) Highly polished pottery, which is given strong, deeply incised, stylized patterns of arabesques.
Unglazed pottery is practiced throughout the country, with each region having its own speciality. Black pottery is yet another form of unglazed pottery, which resembles the Harappan pottery style.

(d) The Sangeet Natak Akademi currently confers classical status to eight Indian dance forms. They are as follows :

1. Bharatnatyam - Tamil classical dance.

2. Odissi - Odisha classical dance.

3. Kuchipudi - Andhra Pradesh (Telugu) classical dance.

4. Mohiniattam - Kerala classical dance.

5. Sattriya - Assamese classical dance.

6. Kathkali - Malayalam classical dance.

7. Kathak - Northern Indian classical dance (Rajasthan, Punjab,
Delhi, Uttar Pradesh).

8. Manipuri - Manipur classical dance.

Q. 9 Comment on the following in not more than 50 words each: 5 × 5
= 25

(a) Nisarga - Runa technology of BARC.

(b) The first - aid that you can safely administer to a person standing next to you at the bus - stop who suddenly faints.

(c) The Kaveri K -10 aero - engine

(d) Molecular Breast Imaging (MBI) technology.

(e) E-governance initiatives by the Union Public Service Commission

(UPSC).

Answer: (a) Nisarga - Runa technology of BARC : It is a Kitchen Waste

(Biodegradable) based Bio-Gas Plant. This plant can process biodegradable waste such as kitchen waste, paper, grass, gobar and dry leaves. It offers zero garbage and zero effluent and provides high quality, manure and methane gas. Weed free manure obtained from such waste has high nitrogen contents and acts as an excellent soil conditioner. This plant could be set up for ecofriendly disposal of wet waste generated in kitchens, canteens of big hospitals, hotels, factories, residential complexes and can avoid health hazards due to dump sites. The technology of biphasic bio-methanation has high potential of solving the solid waste management problems of the urban areas and provides organic manure and biogas as a fuel.

(b) Fainting occurs when the blood supply to the brain is momentarily inadequate, causing the person to lose consciousness. First check the person is breathing ? If he is breathing, restore blood flow to the brain by raising the person’s legs above heart level if possible. Loosen belts, collate or other constrictive clothing. To reduce the chance of fainting again, don’t get the person up too quickly. If the person doesn’t regain consciousness within one minute call to the local emergency number. Check the person’s airways to be sure it’s clear. Watch for vomiting. Check for signs of circulation (breathing, coughing or movement). If a person was injured in a fall associate with a faint, treat any bumps, bruises or cuts appropriately. Control bleeding with direct pressure.

(c) The Kaveri K -10 aero - engine : Kaveri K-10 engine is being developed to be used in the Light Combat Aircraft, Tejas. It is being developed in collaboration of French firm, Snecma. It will have less weight and more replicate thrust to meet the requirements of the Indian Army.

(d) Molecular Breast Imaging (MBI) technology : Breast cancer is a foremost health problem for women worldwide and it is growing in numbers, early detection is critical for improving breast cancer and survival rates. This technology is intended to improve early detection in women who are at high risk for developing breast cancer, or in women with dense breasts who are less likely to benefit from conventional mammography. This technology is a gamma camera dedicated for breast imaging based on accumulation of a radioactive tracer in hyper metabolic cancer cells. The innovation of the MBI technology is the use of imaging detectors, cadmium zinc telluride (CZT) to replace the standard Nal detectors routinely used for gamma cameras, in a dedicated breast device.

(e) E-governance initiatives by the Union Public Service Commission

(UPSC): E-governance defined as, the employment of the internet and the world-wide-web for deliveringgovernments information and services to the citizens. UPSC has introduced the systemof online submission of applications for the competitive examinations it conducts. Good lead taken by the UPSC as it reduces the paper use, risk of postal delays, low risk ofrejection since online applications built in self-scrutinising features not allowing anapplicant to leave any column blank, one can view and take a printout of one’sapplication for future reference, one can apply hassle ‘free manner at the convenienceof sitting at home or cyber cafe, any time even during night, overall its a user friendly initiative taken by the UPSC.

Q. 10 Who are the following and why have they been in the news recently? (Each answer should not exceed 20 words). 2 × 7 = 14

(a) Lieutenant Navdeep Singh

(b) Rahim Fahimuddin Dagar

(c) Lobsang Sangay

(d) P. R. Sreejesh

(e) Nileema Mishra

(f) V. Tejeswini Bai

(g) Aishwarya Narkar

Answer: (a) Lieutenant Navdeep Singh lost his life in gun battle in J&K, while fighting terrorists during an anti-infiltration operation along LOC in Gurez section of Bandipora district of north-Kashmir in Kashmir valley. 26 year old officer, after doing his MBA, was commissioned in March into the
Army Ordinance corps and was serving in the 15th Battalion of the Maratha Light Infantry. (

(b) Rahim Fahimuddin Dagar, the 19th generation khalifa of the musical lineage known as the Dagar Gharana, that kept alive the tradition of Dhrupad, died with illness. He was honoured with the Padma Bhushan in 2008 and Sangeet Natak Akademi Ratna Puraskar also.

(c) Lobsang Sangay, political successor to the Dalai Lama, was sworn in as Prime Minister of the Tibetan government in exile at a public ceremony in
Dharamsltala.

(d) P. R. Sreejesh played a stellar role in India’s victory at the inaugural
Asian Champions Trophy of Hockey. Sreejesh’s two saves in the tie— breaker led to India’s 4–2 win over Pakistan in the championship in Ordos in China. Sreejesh was given an official reception by Hockey Kerala at
Thiruvananthapuram.

(e) Nileema Mishra, a woman leader to the poorest in Maharashtra, has been awarded Asia’s prestigious Ramon Magsaysay award for 2011. She along with US-trained Indian engineer Harish Hande (who revolutionized use of solar lights, one among the six people who have been awarded the same) had helped to harness technologies to empower their countrymen and created waves of progressive change across Asia.

(f) V. Tejeswini Bai, the first Karnataka women to be conferred with the
Arjun Award in Kabaddi. She received the same from President Pratibha Patil on August 29th 2011. She also had been given the state’s Eklavya award in

2006. She represented India from 2006 to 2010 and captained Indian team for four years.

(g) Aishwarya Narkar, is a Marathi film actress and also performs in Hindi
TV serials. She has received the National Film Award from the President of India.

 

2011 SOLVED PAPER II
Time Allowed : Three Hours Maximum Marks : 300

Answers must be in the medium specified in the Admission Certificate issued to you, which must be stated clearly on the cover of the answerbook in the space provided for the purpose. No marks will be given for the answers written in a medium other than that specified in the
Admission Certificate. Candidates should attempt ALL questions strictly in accordance with the instructions given under each question.
Two (2) graph sheets are attached to this question paper for attempting questions 9(b) and 10 (c). The graph sheets are to be carefully detached from the question paper and surely attached to the answer-book by the candidate.

Q. 1 Answer any TWO of the following in about 250 words each: 20 ×
2 = 40

(a) List the Central Asian Republics and identify those of particular strategic and economic importance to India. Examine the opportunities and bottlenecks in enhancing relations with these countries.
Important Points for Answer:
- Central Asian Republics
- Strategic and economic importance
- Opportunities in relations
- Bottlenecks in relations

Answer: The Central Asian Republics are Uzbekistan, Kazakhstan, Kyrgyzstan and Tajikistan.
The Central Asian Region, as a whole, not only connects Asia to Europe, but is also rich in natural resources. It provides the shortest transit route to Europe from Asia, and has a 55-million strong consumer market. It therefore occupies a special place in India’s foreign policy priorities.
Unlike the past, the importance to India today is not merely civilisational, but also geopolitical and economic. India has joined in the “New great game” in the Central Asian region for the area’s vast energy resources. India considers
Turkmenistan an extended neighbour, a natural ally and a key partner in Central Asia. India’s Vice-President Hameed Ansari visited Kazakhstan and signed MoU, expressing readiness to work on a project specific made of hydrocarbon sector, food production, information technology and education. Bottlenecks : One of the major issues standing in the way of greater relation between India and Central Asian States is a lack of efficient transportation capabilities, road, railways, etc. However, the Indian press has reported that an International North-South transport Corridor linking Central Asia with India will soon be developed by the recent steps taken by Kazakhstan,
Turkmenistan and Russia to increase road and rail connectivity, may help in the development of the corridor. India is surrounded by Unstable or Authoritative states, so direct access to the Central Asia is difficult as the route passes through the Pak-Afghanistan region. China’s growing influence in the region is also a hurdle for India’s growth in that region.

(b) Criticallyexamine the security and strategic implications of the socalled
‘string of pearls’ theory for India.
Important Points for Answer:
- String of pulse theory
- Implications for India

Answer: China’s ‘String of Pearls’ policy started in the 1980 and its basic aim was to give China increased energy security with requesting stations through the world.
‘String of pearl’ describes the manifestation of China’s rising geo-political influence through efforts to increase access to ports and airfields, develop special diplomatic relationships and modernize military forces that extend from the South China Sea through the Strait of Malacca, across the Indian ocean and on to the Arabian Gulf.
As a part of that, China has helped Sri Lanka in developing its Hambantota port in Southern Sri Lanka, though China says its commercial, China’s naval presence in Hambantota would add to the concerns of the Indian Navy. Similarly, China had helped Pakistan with a similar project in Gwadar on the
Mekran Coast in Baluchistan, the first phase already completed.
Though India is trying to make a strong hold in South Asia, China seems to have been making consistently over the last four decades to strengthen its South Asian presence and fulfill its string of pearl policy, and that has made India worried.
Recently China has announced its decision to set up a naval base of Sychelles Island on the Indian Ocean, which caused grave concern to India.
The ‘String of Pearl’ policy includes the following steps taken by China in India’s neighbouring countries.

(i) building road in PoK.

(ii) building road from China-Gilgit-Neelam valley also planned number of tunnels and bridges.

(iii) The Karakoram Highway which connects China’s Xinjian region with North- Pakistan (The highway called the 9th wonder of the world by some because of its altitude). Naval port at Gwadar on the Makran Coast in Baluchistan, Pakistan.

(iv) Naval base at Sychelles island, in Indian Ocean.
Which makes India to worry about its security and sovereignty in.the region and also in the Indian Ocean and Southern hemisphere.

(c) “Compared to the South Asian Free Trade Area (SAFTA), the Bay of Bengal Initiative for Multisectoral Technical and Economic Cooperation Free Trade Area (BIMSTEC FTA) seems to be more promising.” Critically evaluate.
Important Points for Answer:
- SAAFTA BIMSTEC FTA Comparison Evaluation

Answer: The present situation retreats that there are enormous opportunities for forging closer economic relations among SAARC countries. These opportunities could be fully utilised through twin process of trade liberalisation and industrial restructuring which are complementary to each other. SAFTA which came into effect in January 2006, has been below the potential PTA. The intra-trade between the SAARC countries stands at US $ 4 million as compared to its potential of US $ 80 billion.
The main reasons being the self-interest of the member countries, viewing India as possessing the “big-brother” attitude despite India’s attempt to dispel fears of the smaller countries of SAARC. SAARC is a geo-political region rather than an economic block as evidenced by the increased participation of China and the most important factor being the rivalry of India and Pakistan which has led Pakistan not to grant MFN status to India. Now, Pakistan has announced MFN status to India after a long delay since India has given MFN status to Pakistan long before.
On the other hand, BIMSTEC member countries agreed to establish the BIMSTEC Free Trade Area frame work agreement in order to stimulate trade and investment in the partners. It holds greater promises to India. BIMSTEC along with the Mekong Ganga Cooperation can act as a gateway to greater access to the large ASEAN Services market of 565 million service buyers.
Therefore, India has been actively signing many PTAs bilaterally with the
ASEAN members like Singapore, Malaysia and Thailand. India occupies 70% of the SAARC region, both geographically and economically, and the remaining 6 nations of the SAARC borders only with India and not with each other. As the biggest and the most industrialised trading partner among the SAARC countries, India has to recognise that a special responsibility devolves on her and take a lead in making a regional economic co-operation or reality in South Asia.

Q. 2 Answer any THREE of the following in about 150 words each : 12 ×
3 = 36

(a) Subsequent to the Nuclear Suppliers’ Group (NSG) waiver in 2008, what are the agreements on nuclear energy that India has signed with different countries ?
Important Points for Answer:
NSG
Waiver for India
- Nuclear energy agreements

Answer: (a) India has a flourishing and largely indigenous nuclear power program and expects to have 20,000 MWe nuclear capacity on line by 2020 and 63,000 MWe by 2032. It aims to supply 25% of electricity from nuclear power by 2050.
After the 34 years exclusion, India was given the waiver of the NSG and has been recognised as the de facto nuclear power. It paved the way for major international companies to have a share in the vast nuclear market of India. France was the first country to sign the civil nuclear deal in 2008 followed by eight other countries.
These are Russia, Mongolia, Namibia, Argentina, UK, Canada, Kazakhastan and South Korea.
Recently, Australia, the largest uranium exporter of the world, has removed the ban on India and consented to export Uranium to India.

(b) Trace the progress of India’s efforts for a joint counter-terrorism strategy with China. What are the likely implications of the recent
Xinjiang violence on these efforts ?
Important Points for Answer:
Joint counter-terrorism strategy India - China efforts
Xinjiang violence

(b) The two Asian giants clearly know that the ‘terrorism anywhere is a threat everywhere’. That was the main theme of the joint counter terrorism mechanism signed by India and China in 2002. After 9/11 attacks, India has signed many bilateral mechanism with several countries.
A significant addition was made to this mechanism in 2005, the joint counter terrorism was extended to include “Separatism and extremism”, so as to suit Chinese problem of Uighur extremism and Dalai Lama’s separatism movement despite the working of this bilateral mechanism since 2002.
The First India-China Joint anti-terror Military Exercise (“Fland-in-Hand,
2007”) held at Kunming in the Yunnan province of China from December 19 to 25, 2007, which involves 103 troops each from the two armies. Beijing’s policy, like that of the US, shows a marked disinclination to hold Pakistan accountable for the Jihadi terrorism in the Indian Territory. The recent incidents in Xinjiang and its probable links with ISI has not led to any change in China’s policy except supporting Pakistan efforts in dismantling terrorism, and it is this aspect which has strategic implication for India.

(c) Bring out the importance of the ‘Small and Medium Enterprises Expo and Conference’ held in Dubai last year for Indian business.
Important Points for Answer: SME Expo and Conference Importance

(c) The SMEs Expo, will offer a great platform to small units to promote their brands, products and services, as well as explore business opportunities in the
Middle-East and North African markets. Besides giving a major impetus to networking activities with other visiting countries such as Pakistan, Mauritius, Nigeria and Vietnam, the event will offer Indian SMEs the opportunity to acquaint themselves with the latest technologies in their industries and from alliances with international clients. Indian SMEs from sectors such as plastic, petrochemicals, garments and textiles, and art and handicrafts, among others, are likely to gain from participation at the expo. Indian SMEs attending the event could also seek to scout for partnership possibilities with Dubai and Gulf Cooperation Council (GCC) based countries such as Kuwait, Saudi Arabia, the UAE, Oman, Bahrain and Qatar. Significantly according to the Dubai Customs Department, with bilateral trade between India and Dubai shooting above US $ 23.14 billion, India was
Dubai’s biggest direct trade partner during the initial seven months of 2010.
There is also a vast opportunity for India to boost India’s banking presence in the UAE to enhance two-way trade and investment.

(d) What are the salient features of the political and economic relationship between India and South Africa ?
Important Points for Answer: India - South Africa Political Relations Economic Relations Importance

(d) India’s relationship with South Africa starts since Mahatma Gandhi started his Satyagraha Movement in South Africa more than a century ago. Following a commencement of talks between the then South African Government and the African National Congress (ANC), India’s relations with South Africa were restored after four decades with the opening of a cultural centre in Johannesburg in May 1993. Thus against the background of India’s consistent support to the anti-apartheid struggle, close and friendly relations - strategic, political, economic and cultural between the two countries have subsequently been consolidated.
Various bilateral agreements have also been concluded between India and South Africa in diverse areas ranging from economic and commercial cooperation, defence, culture, health, human settlements, public administration, science and technology and education.
On the other hand, the economic relationship also reached the new age, the bilateral trade has trebled from US $ 2.5 billion in 2003-04 to US $ 7.5 billion in 2008-09. The trade target to be achieved has been US $ 15 billiion by 2014.
An important initiative under negotiation is the India-SACU preferential
Trade Agreement. Commercial interaction has been aided by an Indo-South
Africa CEO’s Forum. An India Business Forum (IBF) was launched in
March 2007 in South Africa.

Q. 3 Answer either of the following in about 250 words : 20

(a) “The causes and implications of the Jasmine Revolution and its spread are as much economic in nature as they are political.” Critically evaluate.
Important Points for Answer:
Jasmine Revolution Causes
- Implications

Answer: The Arab uprising started when an unemployed youth “Mohammed po Agasi” committed suicide by self-immolation due to police torture for bribe to run a road side fruit shop in Tunisia. This incident ignited a fire in the minds of the people. They were already looking for an opportunity to raise their voice against the Autocratic Government.
Arab spring is the name given to the pro-democracy movement in the western and northern African nations. Economic causes : Youth unemployment, high level of poverty, impact of global financial crisis, widening gulf between rich and poor and likewise. Political causes : Autocratic regime and tribocracy, increasing intervention of major powers to acquire the strategic resources, the civil unrests, high level of corruption and likewise.
Hindrances : Lack of effective central leadership and the problem between the Shia and Sunni Peoples, tribal conflicts, active role of revolutionary groups with the help of NATO and US Forces and weapon supplies.

(b) In the context of the ‘Euro-zone’ debt crisis, examine the proposed
‘six-pack’ solution. Do you think that this has a better chance of success than the earlier Stability and Growth Pact ?
Important Points for Answer: Euro - zone debt crisis Six pack solution Stability and Growth Pact Comparison

Answer: The European Parliament has voted for the adoption of six legislative proposals on EU economic governance, popularly known as the
“Six Pack”, effectively giving unprecedented power to European commission on member state’s fiscal and budgetary affairs.

(i) It hands the European Commission greater powers to sanction countries that do not keep down their debts and deficits.

(ii) The European Commission can also impose fines of 0.2 percent of GDP which can only be overturned by a majority vote of member states in the council.

(iii) The EU Parliament has been given the right to call finance ministers from countries that have been warned.

(iv) It also provides for European Semester so as to annually assess national budgets. Generally, the six pack is about more than a sanctions. It is about prevention. It also emphasise the “prevention is better than cure” principle. It is also about more than fiscal discipline, it is about keeping European economics, competitive to create jobs and archive sustainable growth.
The stability and growth pact (SGP) is a rule based frame work for the coordination of national fiscal policies in the economic and monetary union

(EMU).
Also, it was established to safeguard sound public finances, an important requirement for EMU to function properly.

Q. 4 Answer any four of the following in about 150 words each: 12 × 4
= 48

(a) “As regard the increasing rates of melting of Arctic Sea ice, the interests of the Arctic Council Nations may not coincide with those of the wider world.” Explain.
Important Points for Answer:
Melting of Arctic Sea ice
Arctic Council Nations
- Interest of the World

Answer: Global warming has changed the Arctic and the region is now facing a very different future that many nations and companies want to be a part of it. The Arctic countries are set to make a big short term earnings, at the cost of climate change.
The disappearing of Arctic Sea ice has been known for decades. The underlying cause is believed by all but handful of climatologists to be a global warming brought about by greenhouse gas emissions. Yet the rate at which the ice melting differs in every models. It is predicted that there will be no ice melting in the Arctics at the end of this century, if the level of CO2 and Methane continues to rise at the present level. Some scientists predicts that it may happen in 2050 itself. Interest of Arctic Council Nations :
The Arctic Nations are showing very much interest to tap the untapped reserves of oils and gas. It is believed that 25% of the world’s untapped reserves of oil and gas are in the North of the Polar Circle.
The Eight member Arctic Council nations are looking for the way to tap the resources rather than take stern actions to curb the menace of the climate change.
The fast growing commercial interests, brings challenges to the Nordic nations and they are competing themselves for the economical benefits without considering its consequences.

(b) Is there still a role for the concept of balance of power in contemporary international politics ? Discuss.
Important Points for Answer: Balance of Power
Role and Concept
Answer:The concept of Balance of Power (BoP) exists when there is a parity or stability between competing forces. The concept describes a state of affairs in the international system and explains the behaviour of states in that system.
As a concept in international law, it is considered as “just equilibrium” between the members of the family of nations. It expresses the doctrine intended to prevent any one nation from becoming sufficiently strong so as to enable it to enforce its will upon the rest. Even now, the nations are forming regional and economic co-operations, councils and Security Councils among themselves to make a balance of power in the various region of the world, such as NATO, EU, SAARC, SCO,
ASEAN, AU, etc.
US led NATO groups wanted to make a strong hold in all regions of the world, but to counter this NATO, Russia plans to make more strong SCO and post-several union nations groups in the Asian region. So, still all the countries in the world are some way or other trying to make a power strong hold to survive in the globalised era.

(c) “Strategic interests seem to be replacing commercial interests for the host country with regard to Cam Ranh Bay.” Amplify.
Important Points for Answer:
- Cam Ranh Bay Interests - Strategic vs. Commercial
Answer:In the South-East Asian region, the rowing deterent attitude of China, is considered as a threat to all south-east Asian nations, including
Vietnam. The Vietnam’s military modernisation programme has also escalated tension with Beijing over disputes islands in the South-China Sea.
Once operational, the submarines will provide Vietnam with a potent deterrent aimed at China’s increasingly powerful navy.
The Cam Ranh Bay is one of the finest deep water anchorages in the southeast
Asia and provides access to the commercially and strategically vital sea lanes which pass through the South-China Sea.
The base established by the trench in the late 19th century, occupied by Japan in the Second World War, become major base of operations for the US military in 1978, then lased to Russia for 25 years, and again come back to
Vietnam in 2002.
Now, Vietnam has announced the lease proposal to the foreign navies. But it is viewed as a part of larger strategy by Vietnam to strengthen defence ties with US and facilitate the US military presence in South-east Asia as a counter to China’s rising power in this region. The regular presence of the US warships at Cam Ranh Bay might make China think twice about using coercive military diplomacy against Vietnam.

(d) To what extent has the withdrawal of al-Shabab from Mogadishu given peace a real chance in Somalia? Assess.
Important Points for Answer: Conditions of Somalia
Al-Shabab Withdrawal
- Chances of peace

(d) Somalia is one of the worst famine affected country in the world. The living condition of the people is very-very low. There is no proper food, sanitation and basic amenities.
Due to a long civil war, the international agencies could not do any humanitarian aid to the affected people properly. The al-Shabab guerilla is one of the militant outfits which imposed the blockade in the region.
This had been one of the causes of worsening famine in the country as al- Shabab didn’t allow international body to work there.
Now, with the withdrawal of al-Shabab, the humanitarian crisis can be properly handled and the chances of lasting peace will increase in the region.

(e) On a Formula-one (F-l) racing car track, information to drivers is generally signalled through the standardised use of flags of different colours. Describe the meanings associated with any six of the flags listed below :

(i) White flag

(ii) Black flag

(iii) Yellow flag

(iv) Blue flag

(v) Black and white flag divided diagonally

(vi) Chequered flag

(vii) Yellow and red striped flag
Answer:

(i) White flag : a slow - moving vehicle such as a retiring car, an ambulance or tow truck ahead on the track, and instructs drivers to slow down.

(ii) Black flag : orders a particular driver to return to his pit within the next lap and report immediately to the Clerk of the Course, usually because they have been disqualified from the race.

(iii) Yellow flag : A single yellow indicates danger ahead, such as debris from a crash. Drivers must slow down as they pass; no overtaking is permitted, unless it is unavoidable such as a driver retiring in the section, or a driver is lapped.

(iv) Blue flag : During a race, a light blue flag waved on the track warns the driver that they are about to be lapped by a faster car and must let it pass. A driver may incur penalties if they ignore three successive blue flags.

(v) Black and white flag divided diagonally : informs a driver that their behaviour has been deemed unsporting and if they do not begin acting in a sporting manner immediately they will be disqualified. A sign with the car number accompanies the flag.

(vi) Chequered flag : signals the end of the race, practice session, or qualifying session. During the race it is shown first to the winner and then to the rest of the field as they finish; otherwise it is shown at a predetermined time.

( vii) Yellow and red striped flag : warns drivers that the track surface ahead is slippery, or there is debris present.

Q. 5 Comment on any THIRTEEN of the following in about 50 words each : 5 × 13 = 65

(a) International Year of Chemistry

(b) The scourge of e-waste

(c) ‘Designer’ poultry eggs

(d) INSPIRE programme of the department of Science and Technology

(e) The ‘Kessler syndrome’ with reference to space debris

(f) Omega-3 fatty acids in our food

(g) Difference between ‘spin-drying’ and ‘tumble-drying’ technology with reference to drying of washed clothes.

(h) The diminishing population of vultures

(i) ‘Arsenic-bug’ and the significance of its discovery

(j) F-22 ‘Raptor’ aircraft

(k) ‘Concentrated’ solar energy and ‘photovoltaic’ solar energy

(l) Analog, hybrid and IP systems in CCTV technology

(m) Various applications for Kevlar

(n) Differences between Compact Disc (CD), Digital Versatile Disc

(DVD) and Blu- ray Disc

Answer: (a)International Year of Chemistry : The International Year of Chemistry 2011 (IYC, 2011) is a world-wide celebration of the achievements of Chemistry and its contribution to the well-being of the whole human kind.
The goals of IYC-2011 are to increase the public appreciation of Chemistry, to encourage interest in Chemistry among young people, and to generate positive approach for the creative future of Chemistry.

(b)The scourge of e-waste : Due to technology development, the world is facing another major problem in the name of e-waste. It leads to various environment and health problems. The amount of various chemical compounds, and other toxic materials present in the electronic compounds can cause cancer and other skin diseases. Also they pollute the environment in various ways.

(c)‘Designer’ poultry eggs : Designer eggs are those eggs produced by flocks of chickens that have been fed special diets to modify the nutrition of the eggs they produce.
The composition of the feed leads to the desired composition of the eggs, adding the nutritive profile in the eggs through enrichment in the diet and not by use of any drugs or hormones.

(d)INSPIRE programme of the department of Science and Technology : INSPIRE means Innovation in Science Pursuit for Inspired Research. It is an innovative programme to commemorate to the youth of the country the excitements of creative pursuit of science at an early age and thus build the required critical human resources pool for strengthening and expanding the science and technology system and research and development in the field of science.

(e)The ‘Kessler syndrome’ with reference to space debris : It is a scenario in which the density of objects in low earth orbit (LEO) is high enough that collisions between objects could cause a cascade, each collision generating debris which increases the likelihood of further collisions. It was first proposed by the NASA Scientist Donald J. Kessler in the year 1978. Hence, it is called Kessler Syndrome.

(f) Omega-3fatty acids in our food : Omega - 3 fatty acids are very essential and helpful in alleviating cardiovascular disease. And also the diseases like diabetes, inflammatory ailments and autoimmune disorders.
The source of Omega - 3 are fish oil, marine foods, cod liver oil, and also found in bread, milk and dairy products, fruit juices, salads, and mayonnaise, etc.

(g)Difference between ‘spin-drying’ and ‘tumble-drying’ technology with reference to drying of washed clothes : The two technology has been used in drying the clothes. The spin drying spins the drums faster than a typical washer could in order to extract additional water from the load whereas tumbler dryer uses the heated rotating drum for clothes dryer. Spin dryer on the other hand may remove more water in two minutes than a heated tumbler dryer can in twenty minutes, thus saving significant amount of time and energy.

(h)The diminishing population of vultures : This is mainly due to use of diclofinac in animals has led to the sharp decline in the vulture population in the Indian subcontinent.
Vultures eat the carcasses of livestock that have been administered veterinary diclofinac, and are poisoned by the accumulated chemical which causes renal failure, a known side effect of diclofinac.
The vulture population has declined 95% in 2003 and 99.9% in 2008.

(i)‘Arsenic-bug’ and the significance of its discovery : NASA-supported researchers have discovered the first known micro-organism on earth able to thrive and reproduce using the toxic chemical arsenic. The microorganism which lives in California’s Mono Lake, substitutes arsenic for phosphorus in the backbone of its DNA and other cellular components.

(j)F-22 ‘Raptor’ aircraft : It is a single seat, twin engine fifth generation maneuverable fighter aircraft that uses stealth technology. The F-22 Raptor is made up of 39% titanium, 24% composite, 16% aluminium and 1% tormoplastic by weight. Titanium is used for its high strength-to-weight ratio in critical stress areas, including some of the bulkheads, and also for the head-resistant qualities in the hot sections of the aircraft. Carbon fibre composites have been used for the fuselage frame, the doors, intermediate spars on the wings, and for the honeycomb sandwich construction skin panels. A BAE systems head-updisplay (HUD) shows target status, weapon status, weapon envelopes and shoot cues. A video camera records data on the HVD for post mission analysis.

(k)‘Concentrated’ solar energy and ‘photovoltaic’ solar energy : Concentrated solar power (CSP) systems use mirrors or lenses to concentrate a large area of sunlight, or solar thermal energy, onto a small area. Electrical power is produced when the concentrated light is converted to heat, which drives a heat engine, usually a (steam turbine) connected to an electrical power generator. Photovoltaics (PV) is a method of generating electrical power by converting solar radiation into direct current electricity using semi-conductors that exhibit the photovoltaic effect. The solar panels composed of a number of solar cells contain photovoltaic materials, such as monocrystalline silicon, polycrystalline silicon, amorphous silicon, cadmium felluride and copper indium and gallium setanide/ sulfide.

(l) Analog, hybrid and IP systems in CCTV technology :The closed circuit television (CCTV) system has different technologies in which, analog cameras cost less than IP Network cameras. Widespread compatibility.
Analog CCTV systems capture video in its purest electric form. IP CCTV can send video, audio and data from the city to another up to 30 kilometers away. A Hybrid CCTV system can record and display IP cameras and analog cameras into the same security recorder.

(m) Various applications for Kevlar : Kevlar is a brand fiber which is used for various purposes:

(i) It is used as heat resistant during rocket and satellite launches.

(ii) It is used to make protection vests, military helmets and resistant gloves, bullet proof jackets, etc.

(iii) It is used to vehicle armor and helps to protect the law enforcement personnel who face multiple threats from fire arms, knives and puncture-producing weapons.

(iv) It is also used to improve the performance and durability of power train and body components used in passenger vehicles, trucks and race cars.

(v) The fibers and filaments also help to strengthen countless miles of castes containing glass fibers that transmit voice, data and video signals.

(n) Differences between Compact Disc (CD), Digital Versatile Disc

(DVD) and Blu-ray Disc : Compact Disc (CD) is a small portable round medium made up of molded polymer for electronically recording storing and has storage capacity of 700 MB of data uses semiconductor laser;
Digital Versatile Disc (DVD) is an optical disc technology with 4.7 GB storage capacity on a single-sided, one-layered disc. DVD can be single-ordouble sided, and can have a layer on each side. Two-layered DVD will hold up to 17 GB of video, audio or other information, uses 650 nm wavelength laser diode light; Blue-Ray Disc (BD) is designed to supersede the DVD format. The plastic disc is 120 mm in diameter and 1.2 mm thick, same as DVD. It contain 25 GB per layer uses blue laser.

Q. 6 Comment on the following in about 50 words each: 5 × 5 = 25

(a) Functions of the World Customs Organisation (WCO)

(b) Success of international intervention in Cote d’Ivoire (Ivory Coast)

(c) Strategies adopted by Colombia to eliminate its drug cartels

(d)World Food Programme (WFP) of the United Nations (UN)

(e) Sculpture of the broken chair in front of the UN building at Geneva

Answer: (a)Functions of the World Customs Organisation (WCO) : The
WCO is situated in Brussels, it is considered as a sister organisation of WTO. Its primary function is to enhance the efficiency and effectiveness of member customs administrations, thereby assisting them to contribute successfully to national development goals. Especially in the areas of revenue collection, national security, trade facilitation with other nation community protection and collection of trade statistics which enables the member states in all fronts to improve their trade with international community.

(b) Success of international intervention in Cote d’Ivoire (Ivory Coast) :
The Conflict in Ivory Coast had entered a decisive phase as Laurent Ghagbo, who has hung on to power despite losing in the general election, fights an end game against the rightful President. Unlike what happened in Libya, Iraq and
Afghanistan, the intervention in Coast de’Ivorie worked within a week, former President Laurent Ghagbo, accepted the defeat in an election and plunged his country into a steadily escalating spiral of violence and repression, was in custody. With in a week, the majority of his forces had surrendered or rallied to the new President’s side. Moreover, it did not lead to civil war, which often occurs in the African countries.

(c) Strategies adopted by Colombia to eliminate its drug cartels : As of
2011 Colombia remains the world’s largest cocaine producer. Since the establishment of the war on drugs, the US and European countries have provided financial, logistical, tactical and military aid to Colombia to curb the drug cartels.
The most notable of this step is “Plan Colombia”, a program to combat drug cartels and leftist organisations, and deployed police and military forces to retake the territory controlled by the cartels. A second part of the strategy is to bring down the top bosses. Colombia managed with the help of the USA and the UNODC to rid itself of the drug cartels. As a signatory to the 1988
Vienna Convention against drug trafficking, Colombia has been taking stern actions to curb the menace of drugs.

(d) World Food Programme (WFP) of the United Nations (UN): WFP is the United Nations frontline agency in the fight against global hunger. Since its launch, WFP staff around the world have worked timelessly towards reducing hunger. In2010, WFP aims to provide food assistance to more than
90 million people in 72 countries.
WFP of the UN is the world’s largest humanitarian agency fighting hunger worldwide. It was formed in 1961 with the vision of alleviating hunger from the globe in cooperation with FAO and IFAD.

(e) Sculpture of the broken chair in front of the UN building at Geneva : In order to show the opposition and to remain to the world leaders, the Broken chair is a monumental sculpture in wood by the Swiss artist Daniel Berset, constructed by the carpenter Louis Geneve. It symbolises the opposition to land mines and cluster bombs, and acts as a remainder by politicians and others visiting Geneva. It’s one of the peaceful way to show our angry and disappointment with the world leaders, and to remain their failures to take actions against the injustice.

Q. 7 Why have each of the following been in the news recently? (Each answer in a sentence or two only)2 × 10 = 20

(a) Tiangong-1

(b) K-computer

(c) Gliese 581 g

(d) MABEL robot

(e) ‘Operation Shady Rat’

(f) SAGA-220

(g) ‘Billion Acts of Green’

(h) L’Aquila earthquake

(i) OPERA detector at Gran Sasso

(j) Saturn’s Titan

Answer: (a) Tiangong-1: It is the first space laboratory module of China.

(b) K-computer : It is the fastest super computer produced by Fujitsu Japan. It can operate over 2 petaflops.

(c) Gliese 581 g: It is an earth-sized planet orbiting a nearby star. Liquid water could exist on the surface of the planet.

(d) MABEL robot: It is the fastest bipedal robot with knees running at a speed of 6.8 miles per hour.

(e) ‘Operation Shady Rat’: It is a cyber attack which have hit at least 72 organisations including defence, business, UNO, IOC, etc.

(f) SAGA-220 : It is ISRO made super-computer.

(g) ‘Billion Acts of Green’: An environment campaign, with a goal to reach a billion act of environmental service.

(h) L’Aquila earthquake: The deadliest earthquake that hit Italy recently.

(i) OPERA detector at Gran Sasso: It observed neutrinos travelling faster than the speed of light.

(j) Saturn’s Titan: This is the largest moon of Saturn and only known to have devise atmosphere.

Q. 8 Why have the following been in the news recently? (Each answer in a sentence or two only) 2 × 5 = 10

(a) ‘News International’ newspaper

(b) Mustafa Abdul - Jalil

(c) Abel Kirui

(d) Natalie Portman

(e) Nawaf Salam

Answer: (a) ‘News International’ newspaper : Employees of the newspaper were accused of engaging in phone hacking, police bribery and various illegal ways to collect the news. News International announced the closure of the newspaper on 7 July 2011. The final issue reads in big title : “THANK
YOU AND GOODBYE”.

(b) Mustafa Abdul - Jalil : He is the Chairman of National Transitional Council of Libya’s care taker government.

(c) Abel Kirui : He won gold medal for Kenya in men’s marathon at world athletes championship.

(d) Natalie Portman : The actress has won the Academy, Golden Globe, and BAFTA Awards, for her role in Black Swan in 2011.

(e) Nawaf Salam : He is the Lebanon’s representative of the Security Council. He held the rotating presidency of the Security Council in September 2011.