By Fatskills Exam Guides Team — the exam nerds behind 28,500+ quizzes and 2.1M practice questions across 500+ global exams.
Intermediate – requires understanding of legal provisions, institutional roles, and landmark cases; questions often combine factual recall with situational application.
Trap: Lokpal has powers to investigate all public servants without restriction – Fact: Lokpal’s jurisdiction excludes military officers and requires prior approval for probing Group A officers in some cases, as per Section 4 and 8 of Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act, 2013. Trap: CVC is a constitutional body with enforcement powers – Fact: CVC is a statutory body under CVC Act, 2003; it is advisory and cannot initiate prosecution or direct CBI to register cases. Trap: RTI Act allows unlimited access to all government documents – Fact: Section 8 of RTI Act lists exemptions including national security, cabinet papers, and personal information not in public interest. Trap: Whistleblowers Protection Act provides automatic protection to all informants – Fact: The Act has not been fully implemented; rules for protection mechanism are pending, leaving whistleblowers vulnerable (e.g., Satyendra Dubey, Shanmugam). Trap: PCA, 1988 applies to private individuals equally – Fact: PCA primarily targets public servants; private persons involved in bribery are prosecuted as abettors under Section 12 of PCA, 2018 amendment.
Question: Which of the following statements is correct regarding the Prevention of Corruption Act, 1988? A) It grants automatic sanction for prosecution of all public servants. B) It was amended in 2018 to criminalize bribery by intermediaries. C) It empowers the CVC to directly initiate prosecution. D) It defines corruption only as monetary gain. Answer: B Explanation: The 2018 amendment introduced Section 9 to criminalize habitual gratification and Section 12 to penalize bribe-givers and intermediaries. Why others fail: A is wrong because Section 17A mandates prior sanction for prosecution of public servants, a procedural safeguard added in 2018.
Question: The Supreme Court in Vineet Narain v. Union of India (1997) primarily dealt with: A) Right to information under Article 19(1)(a) B) Autonomy of the Election Commission C) CVC’s oversight over CBI in corruption cases D) Judicial review of executive ordinances Answer: C Explanation: The judgment mandated that the CVC must be consulted in CBI appointments and corruption investigations to insulate them from executive interference. Why others fail: A is associated with PUCL v. UOI (2003), not Vineet Narain.
Question: Which committee recommended the establishment of the Central Vigilance Commission? A) K. Santhanam Committee B) Administrative Reforms Commission C) Second Administrative Reforms Commission D) Vohra Committee Answer: A Explanation: The Santhanam Committee (1962–64) on prevention of corruption recommended the creation of the CVC in 1964. Why others fail: Vohra Committee (1993) examined nexus between criminals and politicians, not vigilance institutions.
Question: The Benami Transactions (Prohibition) Amendment Act, 2016 empowers which authority to confiscate benami properties? A) Income Tax Department B) Enforcement Directorate C) Adjudicating Authority under the Act D) Central Bureau of Investigation Answer: C Explanation: The Act establishes Initiating Officer, Approving Authority, and Adjudicating Authority for identification and confiscation of benami properties. Why others fail: ED enforces PMLA, not benami law; IT Department may assist but lacks direct confiscation powers under this Act.
Question: India ratified the UN Convention against Corruption (UNCAC) in: A) 2005 B) 2008 C) 2011 D) 2014 Answer: C Explanation: India ratified UNCAC in 2011, committing to preventive measures, asset recovery, and international cooperation in corruption cases. Why others fail: 2005 was the year of RTI Act enactment, not UNCAC ratification.
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